In reference to Bisya, I don't see why she was a proof about being a Yehudiah for the saying in the gemara ha'Kofer b'Avodah Zarah Yehudi after matan Torah. Especially since the only tribe that remained loyal was Levi, not Yehuda anyway.....
Thanks,
David Goldman
It seems that anybody who denied or gave up Avodah Zarah was given the title "Yehudi" or "Yehudiyah," irrespective of which tribe he belonged to. Even Esav called his wife Ohalivamah, "Yehudis," to trick his father into believing that she rejected Avodah Zarah, as Rashi explains in this week's Parshah (Bereishis 36:5).
B'Virchas Kol Tuv,
Eliezer Chrysler
This is very confusing. Esav's marriage was BEFORE Yehuda was born to Yaakov! So where did Rashi get such an explanation?! How would the idea of the name of Yehudi come up BEFORE any of Yaakov's children were born?!
In any event, the kashe on the gemara in Megillah remains unresolved: why use the story of the daughter of Pharoah as a proof for the aphorism that ANYONE who rejects idolatry is a Jew from before Matan Torah - especially when only the Tribe of Levi were loyal?!
Plus, I still don't see how this aphorism could ONLY be applied to Bnai Yisrael because it doesn't state "Every Israelite" but only "Everyone." And why would there be such a chiddush only in reference to Mordechai and nowhere else in Tanach to all the Bnai Yisrael who were loyal to Hash-m? Why couldn't it be said simply that Yehudi refers to all Israelites since the tribe of YEHUDA is the tribe of the Malchus?
The Gemara is not suggesting that Bisyah was a Yehudiyah. In answer to the question why the verse in Divrei ha'Yamim refers to her as "Yehudiyah," it explains that this was a title given to all people who denounced idolatry -- presumably because it was the trait of Yehudim (Jews) -- but it was not confined to them or to the tribe of Yehudah, after whom all Jews were ultimately named. As I explained, even Esav called his wife by that name in order to convey the impression that she had given up Avodah Zarah. Even though Yehudah had not yet been born, it must have been a sort of premonition that Yehudiyah or Yehudis is the title given to anyone who gives up Avodah Zarah -- anyone, irrespective of tribe, irrespective of nationality.
B'Virchas Kol Tuv,
Eliezer Chrysler
Thanks. The case of Bisya was connected to Mordechai Hayehudi, who was called that as a Jew and also because he was from Yehuda on his mother's side. Then according to your explanation the reference was intended to convey the abandonment of idolatry, which would also apply to Esther. And presumably it would apply to all Bnai Noach.
But it also seems to suggest conversion since the Bnai Yisrael started to be called Yehudim as well. In which case it suggests being a Jew simply by abandoning idolatry.
In addition we know from meforshim that bowing to Haman did not davka mean that every Jew who did it was an idolator even though he was wearing a sign of idolatry.
And does it mean when many of the non-Jews were "mityahadim" that they actually went through strict conversion, or that they simply abandoned idolatry which was enough for them to be considered Jews too??
All Jews are called "Yehudim" because that is the name of Am Yisrael, called after the kingdom of Yehudah.
Any individual non-Jew who abandons idolatry bears the title "Yehudi" although it has no practical ramifications, especially nowadays, when most non-Jews do not worship idols anyway.
When the verse in Esther speaks about non-Jews "Misyahadim," it means that they converted, as Targum Yonasan translates it.
B'Virchas Kol Tuv,
Eliezer Chrysler