In 9b the gemoro says a difference between get noshim and get shichrur. By get noshim we are mekel (Rashi explains we are mekel only because of igun) to use illiterate edim to sign on the dotted line, but we are not mekel by shtar shichrur.
My question is, if we are not mekel for igun by an even, then why is the gemoro mekel for 1 Ed to say befonay nechtav by get shichrur? The gemoro clearly explained in daf gimmel that the only reason we are mekel for 1 ed to say befonay nechtav, is because of igun, but there is no igun by an even!?
Avrumi Hersh , London england
Your question is based on the assumption that, "there is no igun by an eved". The Gemora does not state anywhere emphatically that there is no Igun with regards to an Eved. However, the correct implication is that the Igun of a married woman is more severe a problem than the Igun of an Eved. Therefore, in some questions we are lenient in order to fulfill the needs of the Eved to avoid Igun and in others (in which we were lenient for a married woman) we are not.
Shimon Brodie