Hello, sorry if this is a basic question, but it's unclear to me who Eidim Zomemim actually are meant to pay in a monetary case. The working assumption seems to be that they pay it to the accused, who they were trying to make pay money. But maybe they should pay the person they were trying to make the defendant pay to (eg they want to make Reuven pay Shimon, perhaps they should pay the money to Shimon because that would have been the outcome).
Or according the view that it's a kenas/fine, maybe they should just pay Beis Din?
thank you!
Josh
We learn from the verse, "Ka'asher Zamam," that we consider it as if the witnesses had succeeded to achieve what they intended to do (for example, they receive lashes or the death penalty as if the Dayanim had accepted their testimony). Accordingly, we consider it as if, as a result of Beis Din declaring Reuven liable to pay Shimon, Reuven has lost money on account of their testimony, and thus they are obligated to reimburse him.
B'Virchas Kol Tuv,
Eliezer Chrysler