The gemara says v'Kichah Ikrei Kinyan my question is that when the gemara says this, does the gemara mean that we find that the Loshon of kicha is a kinyan.
Or does the gemara mean that kicha which is refering to money means kinyan and then the gemara goes on to prove that when we use a Loshon of money it refers to it as a kinyan?
My 2nd question is that why does the gemara need to bring 2 proofs that kesef is a kinyan.
Many thanks
Benzi
Benzi, London
1) Rashi writes explicltly (end of 2a) that Kichah is a Lashon of Kinyan.
2) Tosfos (2b, DH Iy Nami) writes that the first verse could be explained to mean "the field which Avraham acquired through Chazakah or a Shtar." The Maharsha writes that the reason why the second verse is required is that in the first verse it does not state Kesef next to Kinyan in the same way that it does in the second verse.
Benzi, wishing you and all your family a Healthy Summer!
Dovid Bloom