Why does the Torah not insert the word "Im", as if it was referring to something that is bound to happen?
Ramban: The Torah deliberately omits "Im", because it serves a dual purpose
What are the connotations of the words "ve'Noshantem ba'Aretz"?
Rashi: It is a hint that Yisrael will go into exile 1 after 852 years (the Gematriya of ve'Noshantem).
Ramban: Once they have been a long time in the land and feel secure, the likelihood exists that they will forget Hashem and start turning to other gods.
Da'as Zekenim: After you are in the land a long time, you might think that [even if you sin] there will not be anger and destruction (Hadar Zekenim
Ramban: This hints at the first exile - Galus Bavel.
Why does the Pasuk not add 'Va'avadtem oso'?
Ramban: Because it is talking about making images and not about serving them. 1
When ought they then to have gone into Galus?
Why does the Pasuk add "Va'asisem ha'Ra"?
Ibn Ezra: This refers to other Mitzvos that they would contravene - such as murder and adultery.
What are the connotations of "Lehach'iso"?
Seforno: They will sin in order to remove the Shechinah from Yisrael, so as not to be subservient to the Torah of Hashem and to His Mitzvos.
It implies that they will sin Lehach'is (to anger Hashem), and not le'Te'avon (for pleasure).
When, in fact, was the the prediction of this verse actualized?