hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah write "Mishp'chos b'nei K'has" (and not Mishp'chos ha'Kehasi" - like it did by Gershon, in Pasuk 23 [See also Sifsei Chachamim])?

1.

Rashi: This hints at the fact that K'has encamped close to Degel Re'uven, which was also located in the south. 1 And that explains why Dasan and Aviram and the two hundred and fifty men, mostly from from Reuven, were drawn after Korach 2 and joined him in his rebellion, and why they were subsequently punished together with him. 3


1

See Sifsei Chachamim. Note however, that the Torah, in Pasuk 35, employs similar wording in connection with Merari ("le'Mishp'chos Merari", and not ha'Merari").

2

Rashi: Based on the principle "Oy le'Rasha, Oy li'Shecheino!'

3

See also Rashi in Bamidbar 16:1, D.H. 've'Dasan va'Aviram'.

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