hebrew
1)

What did Hashem mean when He said "ve'Tapchem asher Amartem la'Vaz Yih'yeh"?

1.

Ramban (on Pasuk 1): He meant that just as 1 Yisrael stated (in Pasuk 3), their children will indeed suffer Galus when the time arrives, because Hashem visits the sins of the fathers on the children. Consequently, He will bring them to the land 'to know it', but not to inherit it permanently.


1

"Asher" = 'Ka'asher'.

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