How will we reconcile the current Pesukim, which imply that Moshe dressed Aharon independently, with the Pasuk in Tetzaveh, 28:9 "Vayachgor osam Avneit", implying that he dressed Aharon and his sons in one sitting?
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: The Torah is merely informing us that he bathed Aharon and his sons, but in fact, he bathed Aharon and dressed him first, and then went on to bathe his sons and dressX them.
Refer to Sh'mos, 29:9:1:1-4.
Why does the Torah omit the Michnasayim, both here and in Tetzaveh, by the command?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because therre are some things that even a Talmid may not do for his Rebbe ? how much more so a Rebbe for a Talmid, and we can therefore assume that Aharon and his sons donned the Michnasayim themselves. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: The Yerushalmi in Yoma, Perek 1 learns the obligation to wear the Michnasayim by the Milu'im via a Gezeirah Shavah ""ve'Zeh ha'Davar asher Ta'aseh"Tetzaveh (Sh'mos, 29:1) from "Va'asei lahem Michn'sei Bad" (Ibid. Ki Sisa, 28:42).
Moshe was commanded (Sh'mos 29:5,9) to gird Aharon with the Avnet after putting on all the other Begadim. Why did he gird him right after putting on the Kutones?
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: It is correct to gird him right after putting on the Kutones. In Sh'mos, it is written at the end in order to mention girding him and his sons together. Likewise, he tied the belt of the Eifod immediately after putting on the Eifod, as is correct, even though the command mentioned putting on the Choshen beforehand, for conciseness.
