1)
Why did he write "Lehashmid", and also children and women? Would it not suffice to kill the men?
1.
Vilna Gaon (11-12): This is like in the first letters (3:13). They cannot nullify the first letters, just to explain who should be ready to kill. Really, they did not want all this. It suffices to be saved from their great affliction!
2)
Why does it say "u'Shlalam Lavoz"?
1.
Rashi: This is like in the first letters (3:13). Even so, they did not take the spoils; they showed everyone that it was not for the sake of money.
2.
Malbim: The latter letters could not detract from the first, only to explain and add to the first. Therefore, he needed to write u'Shlalam Lavoz, like the first letters said.
