Why does the Torah write "Vehikriv" - in connection with the Nazir bringing his Korban to the Azarah - and not the more common "Veheivi"?
Oznayim la'Torah: To emphasize that the Nazir is on the level of a Kohen, inasmuch as, although he is not permitted to actually bring the Korban on the Mizbe'ach, his bringing it to the Azarah in and of itself is considered an Avodah.
What did the Nazir do wrong that requires him to bring a Chatas on the day that he terminates his Nezirus?
Ramban: He should initially have declared himself a permanent Nazir, to remain at such a high level of Kedushah and Avodas Hashem 1 , and not return to his original level. 2
R. Bachye #1 (citing Nazir): It is a Chidush - that he brings a Korban (Chatas) even though he did not sin. 3
R. Bachye #2 (according to Kabalah): With reference to 6:2:2:4 - Having attained such a high level, it now appears as if he wants to remove himself from it. 4
Ramban, seeing as the Pasuk in Amos, 2:11 praises and places him on a par with a Navi, and seeing that the Torah, earlier, in Pasuk 8, describes him as "Kadosh hu la'Hashem".
See R. Bachye's objection to this explanation.
See R. Chavel's footnotes note 13.
Hence the Torah does not write 'S'lichah' or 'Kaparah' in connection with the Korbanos. See R. Bachye.
Seeing as the Chatas precedes the Olah, why does the Torah mention the Olah first?
Zevachim, 55a: In order to compare both the Olah and the Shelamim to the Chatas - to teach us that even though basically, the Nazir is supposed to shave after bringing all three Korbanos, just as he is Yotzei Bedieved if he shaved after bringing just the Chatas, 1 so too, is he Yotzei if hs shaved after bringing just the Olah or the Shelamim.
