Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'ha'Noseress Mimenah"
Sifra: To teach us that the Kohanim only eat the Shirayim of a Kasher Minchah but not of one that became Pasul.
Having already said "ve'ha'Noseres mimenah Yochlu ... ", why does the Torah add "Matzos Te'achel"?
Yevamos, 46a and Sifra #1: To teach us that it is a Mitzvah to eat the Shirayim. 1
Sifra #2: "Te'achel" implies that it is a Mitzvah to eat even a small amount of Minchah that remains ? even if it is less than a ke'Zayis. 2
Yevamos (Ibid.) and Sifra: Because, since before the Kemitzah has been performed, the Minchah may not be eaten, we would have interpreted "ve'ha'Noseres mimenah Yochlu ... " to mean R'shus (that it is permitted to eat it). Therefore "Matzos Te'achel" teaches us that it is a Mitzvah.
See ha'Torah v'ha'Mitzvah.
Seeing as the Minchah, Chatas and Asham are Kodshei Kodshim, why are the Shirayim of the Minchah and the Basar of the Chatas and the Asham given to the Kohanim and not burnt on the Mizbe'ach like the Olah?
Having written "Te'achel be'Makom Kadosh", why does the Torah add "be'Chatzar Ohel Mo'ed Yochluhah"?
Zevachim: To include the rooms that are built in the Har ha'Bayis but that open into the Kodesh in the locationss where Kodshei Kodshim may be eaten.
Oznayim la'Torah (DH 'Matzos Te'achel'): Perhaps this serves as a hint 1 to the Halachah (cited in Menachos, 5) that if the enemy has surrounded the Azarah, the Kohanim are permitted to eat Kodshei Kodshim in the Heichal and Sheyarei Menachos.
And, according to the Ramban, the source. See Oznayim la'Torah who elaborates.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Yochluhah"?
