Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Yad ha'Ishah" ?
Sifri: To teach us that the Kohen must take the Minchah from the hands of the Sotah directly and not from the hands of her Shali'ach, and that consequently, if she is a Nidah (who is forbidden to enter the Azarah - Torah Temimah), she does not drink the water.
Sotah, 19a: To teach us, via a Gezeirah Shavah "mi'Yad ha'Ishah" from "Yadav" - Tzav, Vayikra, 7:30, 1 from the Korban Shelamim that the Minchas Sotah requires Tenufah be'Ba'alim (by the owner - the Sotah). 2
How will we reconcile the Pasuk "Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Yad ha'Ishah ...Veheinif" with the fact that it is the owner who performs the Tenufah?
Yerushalmi Sotah, 3:1: It teaches us that the Kohen takes the Minchah from the hand of the Sotah and transfers it into a K'li Shareis, before placing his hands underneath those of the Sotah to perform the Tenufah together with her. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 137, who cites the Yerushslmi which discusses the question that for a Kohen to place his hands underneath those of a woman is despicable and elaborates.
What is the significance of the Kohen bringing the Minchah to the Mizbe'ach?
Rashi: It is the Hagashah to the south-western corner of the Mizbe'ach that is performed with every Korban Minchah.
What is the significance of the comparison between the Tenufah and the Hagashah (bringing the Minchah to the Mizbe'ach)?
Megilah, 20b): It teaches us that the Hagashah, like the Tenufah - in connection with which the Torah writes in Emor "be'Yom Hanifchem", may be performed all day. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 138.
How will we reconcile "Lifnei Hashem" implyimg on the west side of the Mizbe'ach) with "el-P'nei ha'Mizbe'ach" (in Tzav 6:7 - in connection with the Korban Minchah) which implies the south side?
Sotah, 14b: Refer to Vayikra, 6:7:3:1. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 140, who also explains the Gemara's concluding word 've'Dayo'.
