What is the exact meaning of "Latzbos Beten Velanpil Yarech"?
Rashi: It means to cause the stomach to swell and the thigh to fall off. 1
Rashi: As when the 'Lamed' in front of a verb is punctuated with a 'Patach', it turns the verb into Hif'il, as if it had written 'Lehatzbos Beten ... ', like we find in Beshalach, Sh'mos 13:21 and in Devarim, 1:31.
Having mentioned 'Yerech' and 'Beten' in the previous Pasuk, why does the Torah repeat them here?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: Because here the Torah is referring to the stomach and the thigh of the adulterer, 1 who will suffer the same fate as the Sotah, wherever he may to be. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: This is also implied by the fact that the Torah writes "Latzbos Beten Velanpil Yarech", and not 'Latzbos Bitnech Velanpil Yereichech'.
See Targum Yonasan on Pasuk 27. Moshav Zekeinim (in Pasuk 18) and Da'as Zekeinim (in Pasuk 24): A support for this lies in the word "ha'Me'arerim", whose Gematriya is four hundred and ninety-six the number of limbs in two people. Da'as Zekeinim and the Ri query this however from the Gemara in Bechoros 45a, which states that there are two hundred and fifty-two limbs in a woman - not two hundred and forty-eight?
What are the connotations of ?Amen??
Rashi (in Bereishis, 42:20: It means ?Emes? ? ?It will come true!?
Why does the Sotah say "Amen" twice?
Rashi: "Amen" on the curse, "Amen" on the Shevu'ah; "Amen" from this man, "Amen" from another man; 1 "Amen" that I did not sin whilst I was betrothed, "Amen" that I did not sin whilst was married; 2 a Shomeres Yavam or after Yibum.
Seforno: 'I accept the two-sided condition that you (the Kohen) stated: That if I did not go astray, I will be released from the sin of Shevu'as Shav; and if I went astray, the curse will take effect.
Targum Yonasan: ' "Amen" that I did not sin whilst I was betrothed, "Amen" that I did not sin whilst I was married.'
What if the Sotah is dumb?
Sotah, 27b: If the Sotah is dumb, she does not drink the Mei Sotah, since she is unable to answer 'Amen' to the Kohen's curse. 1 (And the same applies to where she is deaf - Yerushalmi Sotah, 1:1).
What is the significance of the fact that the Sotah answers 'Amen' and does not make the Shevu'ah herself?
Shevu'os, 29: It teaches us that whoever answers 'Amen' after a Shevu'ah it is as if he had made the Shevu'ah himself. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 123.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that "Amen Amen" is the acceptance of the Shevu'ah, the curse, from this man, from another man, whether she was betrothed or married, Shomeres Yavam or after Yibum. How can we learn all this from one extra word?
Riva: The first "Amen" teaches the Shevu'ah, the curse, from this man and from another man, even though it is not redundent All these are in the Parshah, whereas the latter "Amen" teaches us during Erusin or after Nisu'in, Shomeres Yavam or after Yibum, since these are all like one (the corresponding case of a Yevamah).
