Why was the current Parshah not inserted immediately after the Mishkan was completed (on the first of Nisan), seeing as it was important for the camp of Yisrael to be holy and fit for the Shechinah to dwell in it?
Rashi: It was, 1 even though the Torah only inserts it here (based on the principle ?Ein Mukdam u?Me?uchar ba?Torah?). 2
Ramban and Rashbam: It is appropriate to teach the Din of sending Teme'im out of the camp after the camps of Yisrael and of Levi have been organized. 3
Rashi (citing Gitin, 60a): In fact, eight Parshiyos - all connected with the Mishkan - were said on that day.
Oznayim la?Torah: And the reason the Torah inserts it here ? See answer #2.
The Ramban, who explains that the Torah teaches the Din after the Mishkan was erected, evidently considers the organizing of the camps as being part of its erection.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Machaneh" three times ? in Pesukim 2, 3 & 4, in connection with Shilu'ach Machanos?
Rashi: They represent Machaneh Shechinah (inside the hangings of the Mishkan itself); 1 Machaneh Leviyah (surrounding the Mishkan, where the Levi'im encamped) 2 and Machaneh Yisrael (surrounding Machaneh Leviyah), 3 where the four Degalim encamped. 4
What is the meaning of "ve'Chol Tamei la'Nafesh"?
Rashi (citing Targum Onkelos) and Targum Yonasan: it means anyone who became Tamei via the bones of a Meis. 1
Rashi: Because "li'Temei" translates as 'bones', like we find in the Midrash Rabah 'Adriyanus Shachik Tamya'. See Yayin ha'Tov who explains that bones is a general term incorporating the body of a Meis.
Why does the Torah need to insert 'Zav' and 'Metzora'? Why can we not learn them from Tamei Meis?
Pesachim, 66b: Because by a Pesach ha'Ba be'Tum'ah (where the majority of the people are Tamei), Teme'ei Meis are permitted to enter the Azarah but Zavim and Metzora'im are not. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 3.
Why does the Torah add the word "Kol" by Tzaru'a, Zav and Tamei Meis?
Pesachim, 67a & 67b: "Kol Zav" includes Ba'al-Keri and "Kol Tamei la'Nafesh", Tamei Sheretz, and since the Torah inserts ot by them it also inserts it by Tzaru'a.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that this Parshah was said on the first of Nisan. In that case, why does the Torah insert it only here?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because it is inappropriate to insert the Din of sending Teme'im out of the camp before the camps of Yisrael and of Levi have been organized. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'Viyeshalchu min hamachaneh' #1 who gives a second answer to the question.
Rashi writes that the Targum means someone who became Tamei via the bones of a Meis. What prompted him to say that?
Riva: Because if [the Targum 'Tamya'] was an expression of Tum'ah, it would have said "li'Mesa'av Nafsha de'Insha', like it translates every Tum'ah in the Torah. 1
Riva and Mizrachi: Because if it was an expression of Tum'ah, it would mean one who became Tamei via a Tamei Meis (which would be incorrect, since such a person is not an Av ha'Tum'ah, and Tamei la'Nafesh is taught together with Zav and Metzora, who are Avos - Mizrachi).
Mizrachi: If so, it cannot mean bones, since Onkelos always translates bones as 'Garmi'.
Rashi writes that eight Parshiyos were said that day. One of them was the Parshah of Temei'im (Gitin 60a) - with reference to Pesach Sheini (Rashi 60a). But the Gemara says that Moshe taught about Pesach Sheini on Pesach Rishon, a month earlier?
Moshav Zekeinim (citing R. Tam): The Parshah of Temei'im actually refers to the prohibnition of a Tamei to enter the Mikdash or eat Kodshim or Terumah.
