What are the implication of ?Nefesh ki Sishavaa??
ifra: It confines the Din of Korban Oleh Veyoreid to a Shevu?ah ? to preclude a Neder of Nezirus and a Neder to bring a Korban.
What are the implications of the word "l'Vatei bi'Sefasayim"?
Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It implies that a Shevu'ah must be verbalized 1 in order to be effective.
Shevu'os, 26b: Even if he decided in his heart to say it.
What is the significance of "Lehara O Leheitiv"?
Rashi: It means that Reuven makes a Shevu'ah to do good to himself or to harm himself. 1
Shevu'os, 27a: It is confined to doing good to anyone 2 or bad to oneself, 3 both of which are permitted, but does not extend to doing bad to someone else, which is prohibited.
Shevu'os, 47a: The word "O Leheitiv" teaches us that the Din extends to someone who swears to do good to others. 4
Rashi (in Shevu'os, 25a): He swears that he will eat (or sleep) and he doesn't or that he will fast and he doesn't . See also Torah Temmah note 42 & 43.
Refer to 5:42:2.1:2
See Torah Temimah, note 43, citing Tosfos and the Ran.
See Torah Temimah, note 44.
Seeing as the Torah is about to add "Lehara O Leheitiv", why does the Torah insert the words "Levatei bi'Sefasayim"?
Shevu'os, 27a: To include a Shevu'ah which is not to do good or bad to oneself. 1
Shevu'os, 26b #1: Refer to 5:4:4:1 and note.
Shevu'os, 26b #2: To preclude where he intended to make a Shevu'ah regarding wheat-bread but he absent-mindedly said 'barley-bread. 2
What are the connotations of "Lehara O Leheitiv"?
Shevu'os, 27a: It is confined to doing good to anyone 1 or bad to oneself, 2 both of which are permitted, but does not extend to doing bad to someone else, which is prohibited.
Shevu'os, 47a: The word "O Leheitiv" teaches us that the Din extends to someone who swears to do good to others. 3
Refer to 5:42:2.1:2
See Torah Temimah, note 43, citing Tosfos and the Ran.
See Torah Temimah, note 44.
What is "le'Chol asher Yevatei" coming to include?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: It includes a Shevu'ah regarding the past. 1
Shevu'os, 26b: It includes where he intended to swear on wheat-bread, but absentmindedly said 'bread' S'tam. 2
What if one swears to perform a Mitzvah and fails to abide by his Shevu'ah?
Shevu'os, 27a: He is Patur - since he already swore at Har Sinai to keep the Mitzvos, and one Shevu'ah cannnot take effect on another one.
What if one swears to negate a Mitzvah and fails to abide by his Shevu'ah?
Shevu'os, 27a: He is Patur 1 ? based on the comparison of 'bad' to 'good' ? just as good is 'R'shus' (one has the option ot do it or not), so too, is 'bad' R'shus'), to preclude where he swears to negate a Mitzvah, which is not an option. Shevu'ah cannot nullify a Mitzvah.
See Torah Temimah, note 47.
What is the Din regarding someone who swears falsely in order to gain money?
Rashi: He is not included in the current Halachah (of Oleh ve'Yored), but is subject to an Asham Gezeilos. 1
See Pesukim 24 & 25.
What does "le'Chol asher Yevatei" coming to include?
Shevu'os, 27a: It includes a Shvu'ah in the past.
Why does the Torah Torah insert the word "ha'Adam bi'Shevu'ah"?
What are the implications of "Vene'elam mimenu"?
