Rashi (to 47:19) writes that when Yaakov arrived in Egypt, the famine stopped. If so, why does the Torah write that "there was no bread in the entire land"?
Rashi: The Torah has gone back in time, and is now discussing the beginning of the famine. 1
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "There was no bread in the entire land - [The Torah] returns to the original topic, the outset of the famine." What is Rashi coming to emphasize? What is the basis for explaining this way?
Gur Aryeh: According to Rashi, these events did not occur only now, after Bnei Yisrael arrived (i.e. after two years of famine had already passed). Why would the verse need to tell us that there was now no more bread? There hadn't been any bread since the famine's very beginning (other than what Yosef was selling; see 41:55-56). Rather, the Torah returns us to the initial days of the famine.
Rashi writes: "There was no bread in the entire land - ... [at] the beginning of the famine." If the famine indeed ceased now that Yaakov arrived (see Rashi to 47:19), after only two years, wouldn't the Egyptians think Yosef a liar for having predicted seven years of famine?
Mizrachi: Yosef did not specify that the seven years of famine would happen in Egypt. Although the famine ceased in Egypt upon Yaakov's arrival, in other lands it continued. 1
Gur Aryeh #1: The Egyptians were well aware of the concept that an evil decree can be changed through Teshuvah and Tefilah. Yosef himself had hinted to this, when he said that the years of plenty are 'coming' (absolutely), whereas the years of famine 'shall arise' (i.e., they are currently scheduled - see 41:29-30). The Egyptians would know to attribute the end of the famine to Yaakov's arrival.
Gur Aryeh #2: The famine did continue for another five years, but it did not in any way compare to the first two years in severity.
Rashi writes: "Va'Telah - as in the word 'va'Til'eh,' an expression meaning 'weariness.'" But that word has an Alef, whereas the word in our verse does not?
Gur Aryeh: The letters Alef and Hey can both serve as vowels, and are interchangeable when deriving the meaning of a word.
Rashi writes: " Va'Telah - ... similar to the word 'k'Mislah'le'ah' (Mishlei 26:18)." But that word has two Lameds?
Gur Aryeh: We find many cases in Leshon ha'Kodesh, when the last two letters of a root are repeated for emphasis; e.g., "Yerakrak" (Vayikra 13:49); "Secharchar" (Tehilim 38:11; see Rashi ad loc for additional examples).
