Why did Yaakov say "Redu Shamah!" and not 'Lechu Shamah!'?
Rashi: This was a hint that the Galus in Egypt would last 210 years (the Gematriya of "'Redu").
Why did Yaakov (and later Yehudah in 43:8) use the double expression, "v'Nichyeh, v'Lo Namus"?
Ohr ha'Chayim #1, Oznayim la'Torah: We will not die in this world due to starvation and be judged in Olam ha'Ba (for having caused our own death). If we strive to get food, we will live in this world and not die in the world to come.
Ohr ha'Chayim #2: If we get enough food, we will live normally. If we cannot get enough, at least we will not die of starvation.
Ha'amek Davar: 'Chayim' can mean life and not death, or happy life without sadness and lowliness. Yaakov's house was always financed liberally. One could understand that he commanded to bring grain so they could continue to live like they were used to. Yaakov refuted this. One may not indulge himself at a time of famine when the country is in pain! Rather, in any case we will live, and not die, according to what we are used to; we cannot live without bread and grain.
Why did Yaakov say, "Redu Shamah v'Shivru Lanu mi'Sham"?
Malbim: Yaakov heard that the Mishneh l'Melech sells there. He told them to buy from him there, and not from merchants, who sell very expensively. 1
Later (43:2,13), Yaakov agreed to send Binyamin only when he ran out of food. If one could buy from merchants, would he risk Binyamin to save money?! Perhaps later, merchants no longer had grain. Or, Yaakov did not know that from the beginning, no merchants had grain, due to Yosef's decree against donkey-drivers transferring grain (Bereishis Rabah 91:4). The Torah records Yaakov's words to teach frugality. (PF)
What is "Shever"?
Ha'amek Davar: It is grain. There were vegetables and other foods in Eretz Yisrael, but Yaakov and his sons could not live on this. 1
Perhaps they could not bear not to fulfill the Torah Mitzvah of Birkas ha'Mazon and Matzah, proper Seudos Shabbos and Yom Tov... (PF)
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes: "Go down there' - He did not say [simply] 'Go there;' this hints that the Galus in Egypt would last 210 years." Why derive anything from this expression? After all, Eretz Yisrael is considered higher than other lands (Rashi to 45:9), and the Torah uses this expression again in the next Pasuk (42:3)!
Bartenura, Gur Aryeh, Sifsei Chachamim #2: This would not justify 'opening opportunity for the Satan' (by suggesting that bad will befall them 1 ). This is like a curse! 2
Divrei David #1: 42:3 says "va'Yeredu... li'Shbor," i.e. the descent was solely to buy. Here it says "Redu... v'Shivru," i.e. there is another reason for Redu.
Divrei David #2: Here it could have said simply, "Shivru b'Mitzrayim"!
Divrei David #3: He could have said "Lechu." Therefore, we expound "Redu."
Sifsei Chachamim #1: "Shamah" is extra, for it also says "mi'Sham"! Due to Shamah, we expound "Redu."
Gur Aryeh: When a person speaks, he should use refined expression, so as not to imply a negative meaning upon the listener. If Yaakov nevertheless said 'going down,' we must interpret why (compare to 43:20:2.1:1). The following verse (42:3) is not a person's speech, but the Torah's narrative.
Even if Yaakov knew the length of the exile (via counting the 400 years (Bereishis 15:13) from the birth of Yitzchak), would this justify 'opening opportunity for the Satan'?! Even if he feared to tell them explicitly, for 'there is a Bris of the lips' (people's words are fulfilled - but it seems that Yaakov did not know this, for he said about Binyamin "lest fatality occur to him" - 42:3), there are other ways to hint! Rather, Hashem caused him to say this (like he caused Dasan and Aviram to say "we will not ascend" - refer to Bamidbar 16:12:3:1. - PF)
