Why does the Torah write "asher Yesharsu Bam" and not 'Bahem' - like it did in 3:31?
Yoma, 58a: To teach us that if a Kohen receives the blood of a Korban in a bowl that is placed inside another bowl the Korban is Kasher ('two Keilim and one Sheirus') 1
See Torah Temimah, note 4.
What are the connotations of "ba'Kodesh"?
Rashi: "ba'Kodesh" means 'in the Mishkan (the Heichal)', 1 with reference to the K'lei Shareis that were used in connection with the Mizbach ha'Ketores in the Heichal.
And not 'in Kedushah'. See Sifsei Chachamim.
Having written "es Kol K'lei ha'Shareis", why does the Torah repeat "asher Yesharsu bam ba'Kodesh"?
Sanhedrin, 16b: To teach us that, although the Keilim were initiated by anointing them with the anointing oil, from now on, serving with them would initiate them. 1
Zevachim, 119b: "ba'Kodesh" precludes a Bamah (Ketanah) from the requirement of K'lei Shareis.
See Torah Temimah, note 6.
Why were the Keilim of the Mizbe'ach ha'Zahav - the Kaf and the Machtah - placed in a separate cover, as opposed to the Keilim of the Shulchan and the Menorah, which were covered together with them?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because whereas the kelim of the Shulchan and the Menorah are only used together with the Shulchan and the Menorah, th Kaf and the Machtah are sometimes used independently - on Yom Kipur. Moreover, if, for whatever reason, there is no Mizbe'ach ha'Zahav, the Ketores is brought independently on the Machtah.
