Why does the Torah write "al Rosh ha'Sa'ir" and not 'al Rosh ha'Chatas' (as it does by a Hedyot ? in pasuk 29)?
Menachos, 2b: To include the goat of Nachshon (and of the other Nesi'im) 1 in the Din of Semichah.
Oznayim la'Torah: Refer to 4:23:151:3. To remind him to come down from his high horse and to act with humility. 2
In Parshas Naso, by the Chanukas ha'Nesi'im.
In keeping with the Pasuk in Shoftim Devarim,17:20.
Why does the Torah write "ve'Shachat oso" and not 'u'Shechato'? What is it coming to preclude?
Zevachim, 48b: It precludes a. the Shochet from having to stand in the north and b. the Shechitah of Sa'ir Nachshon from having to be performed in the north. 1
Sifra: It precludes a Temurah from the Din of Tzafon. 2
Which location is "bi'Mekom asher Yishchatu es ha'Olah ?" referring to?
Rashi: The north side of the Azarah, as the Torah wrote explicitly by the Olah. 1
In 1:11. See Sifsei Chachamim.
What are the ramifications of "Chatas Hu"?
Rashi: It is Kasher only if it is brought Lishmah, but Pasul if it is brought she'Lo Lishmah.
Sifra: It teaches the Kohen that whatever he performs in connection with the Korban, he should perform specifically for the sake of the Chatas.
Wec do not find such a lengthy ending by any of the other Chata'os? Why does the Torah insert it here?
Oznayim la'Torah. Refer to 4:23:151:2. As if to say that, although the king is bringing his bull in the location of the Olah, before Hashem it is a Chatas ? which is what he must tell the Kohen, who will render the Korban Pasul if he Shechts it in the name of an Olah.
