Who is "Adas Yisrael" referring to?
Targum Onkelos and Yonasan: It refers to K'lal Yisrael.
R. Bachye (citing the Sifra): Which we learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Eidah" "Eidah" from Masaei, Bamidbar, 35:24-25 "Veshaftu ha'Eidah ... Vehitzilu ha'Eidah". And the same Gezeirah Shavah precludes where one member of the Sanhedrin is not fit to Pasken (Horayos, 4b). See Torah Temimah, note 41.
R. Bachye (citing the Sifra): Since the Torah adds the word " Yisrael" ? ?Adas Yisrael?, ?ve?Lo Adas ha?Sheivet?.
Why does the Torah add the word "Kol Adas Yisrael"
Horayos, 3b: To teach us that their Hora'ah only implicates them if the entire Sanhedrin of seventy-one) issued the erroneous ruling. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 50.
?ve?Im Kol Adas Yirael Yishgu?. Why does the Torah insert the word ?Adas??
Horayos 4b: To learn via Gezeirah Shavah ?Adas? ?Eidah? from Bamidbar 35:24 & 25 ?Veshaftu ha?Eidah ? Vehitzilu ha?Eidah? that if there is even one Dayan who is not eligible to sit on the Sanhedrin ? such as a Ger, Nasin or Mamzer ? they are Patur.
What are the connotations of "ve'Ne'elam Davar"?
Rashi: It means that the Halachah was hidden from them and they issued an incorrect ruling - to permit (be'Shogeg) something that is subject to Kareis.
What are the implications of the double Lashon "Yishgu Vene'elam"?
Horayos, 7b: It implies that the Sanhedrin issued an erroneous ruling and that Yisrael actually acted upon is.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Vene'elam Davar me'Einei ha'Kahalr"?
Horayos, 4a: To teach us - via a Gezeirah Shavah "Davar" "Davar" from Shoftim ("Ki Yipalei Mincha Davar ... Lo Sasur min ha'Davar"), Devarim, 17:8 in connection with Zakein Mamrei ? that Par ha'Eidah only applies where the Sanhedrin permitted part of a Chiyuv Kareis, but not where they permitted it completely. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 55.
Who is "Einei ha'Kahal" referring to?
Seforno: It refers to the Sanhedrin ? who, although they are ?the eyes of the congregation, they did not see well themselves.
Horayos 5a: It refers to ?Beis-Din together with the Kahal ? to preclude where only Beis-Din carried out the ruling and sinned.
Why does the Pasuk insert the word "ha'Kahal" (with a 'Hey') four times in the Parshah of Par ha'Eidah?
Horayos, 5a: 1. for itself; 2. to obligate each tribe (which is called "Kahal") to bring a bull, 1 3. to teach us that, although the ruling was issued by the Sanhedrin, the people must have acted upon it; 4. to teach us 'Gereirah' - that as long as either the majority of the people 2 or the majority of the tribles 3 sinned (even though the minority did not) they are obligated to bring twelve bulls, one for each tribe.
Who subsequently sinned?
Rashi and Seforno: The Kahal sinned (even if the Sanhedrin themselves did not. 1
Horayos, 5a: Because "ha'Kahal" implies the Sanhedrin - who issued the ruling, and "Ve'asu", the people - who carried it out.
Why does the Pasuk add (the otherwise superfuous) the word "Ve'asheimu"?
Seforno (on Pasuk 21): It is a warning to do Teshuvah before bringing the Korban.
Horayos, 8b: To preclude, via a Gezeirah Shavah "Ve'asheimu" "Ve'asheim" from the Chatas Yachid in Pasuk 27, and the Asham, in 5:17, that the Par ha'Eidah is confined to a 'Chatas Kevu'ah ? on a sin that carries a Chiyuv Kareis, but does not apply to a plain Asei and a Lo Sa'Asei in the Mikdash. 1
Sifra: To teach us that a Tzibur is subject to punishment just like a Yachid.
See Torah Temimah, note 62.
