What is the definition of "Go'el ha'Dam"?
"Go'el ha'Dam" is the closest relative.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "be'Fig'o bo Hu Yemisenu"?
Rashi: To teach us that, even if the Go'el ha'Dam finds the murderer 1 inside the Ir MIklat, he is permitted to kill him.
Sanhedrin, 45b: To teach us that, if there is no Go'el ha'Dam, Beis-Din appoint one.
Yerushalmi Makos, 2:5: To teach us that, even if the Go'el ha'Dam does not want to kill the Rotze'ach (be'Meizid), 2 it is a Mitzvah to do so. 3
Oznayim la'Torah: To teach us that, if the Rotze'ch be'Shogeg moves from one Ir Miklat to another, the Go'el ha'Dam is pdermitted to kill him there. 4
See Sifsei Chachamim.
See Oznayim la'Torah citing the Me'iri, who reconciles this with the fact that Beis-Din are the ones who are obligated to put the murderer to death. Refer also to 35:30:2:2 and note.
See Torah Temimah, note 32
See Oznayim la'Torah, who bases this on the Mishnah in Makos, 12b, though this cannot be what Rashi measns, since Rashi establishes the Pasuk by a Rotze'ach be'Meizid, as the Sifsei Chachamim explains.:
Whereabouts did the Go'el ha'Dam find the murderer?
Rashi: Even inside the Ir Miklat. 1
Targum Yonasan: Specifically where if he found him outside the Ir Miklat. 2
Since the Pasuk is discussing someone who killed be'Meizid (See Sifsei Chachamim). See Torah Temimah, note 31, DH 'u'Mah she'Piresh Rashi' and 've'Ulai Yesh Lomar'. This is also the opinion of Targum Onkelos. See Oznayim la'Torah who mistakenly ascribes it to Targum Yonasan as well.
Since the Pasuk is discussing someone who killed be'Shogeg (See Na'ar Yonasan).
If a father kills his son, can the victim's brother be a Go'el ha'Dam to kill his father?
