1)

Why does the Torah insert the word "ha'Yam ha'Gadol u'Gevul"?

1.

Rashi and Rashbam: To include the islands in the Mediterranean Sea 1 in the borders of Eretz Yisrael.

2.

R. Bachye: To teach us that the Mediterranean Sea itself is the western border.

3.

Targum Yonasan: 'To incorporate the waters of Bereishis 2 and the original water ... , the craters, the lands, the towns, the islands, the districts and the ships 3 that are in it'. 4


1

Within a line that stretches from Hor ha'Har in the north to Nachal Mitzrayim in the south (See also Na'ar Yonasan).

2

See Na'ar Yonasan.

3

The Dinim of Eretz Yisrael apply even to ships within its borders. See Gitin 7b-8a (PF).

4

This follows the opinion of those who explain that "u'Gevul" comes to include all that lies due west of Eretz Yisrael (See Na'ar Yonasan).

2)

Why does the Torah repeat "Zeh Yih'yeh lachem G'vul Yam"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Refer to 34:9:1:1.

3)

"Zeh Yih'yeh lachem G'vul Yam". What constitutes the western border?

1.

Rashi (in Gitin 8a): Hor ha?Har in the north, 1 Nachal Mitzrayim - where it meets with the Mediterranean Sea, and the Mediterranean Sea in between. 2


1

Refer to 34:7:1:1.

2

Refer to 34:6:1:1 and note.

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