Why does the Torah add the 'Hey' in "el ha'Aretz Cana'an"?
Rashi (in Vayeitzei Bereishis, 31:13) 1 and Ramban #1 (citing the Ibn Ezra): It is the way of the Torah to add a 'Hey' (and is as if it had written 'el ha'Aretz, Eretz Cana'an - Ramban). 2
Ramban #2: It means 'the land (that is called) Cana'an (after its inhabitants). 3
Oznayim la'Torah #1: To stress that Yisrael were not coming to take over the land as thieves, but as owners. It was the land that was designated for them from the time of the creation, 4 the land that Noa'ch distributed to his son Shem in their name. 5
Oznayim la'Torah #2 (citing the Sifri): With reference to the Pasuk in ve'Zos ha'Berachah, 34:1 "Vayar'eihu Hashem es Kol ha'Aretz", "Zos ha'Aretz" teaches us that Hashem showed Moshe every nook and cranny of Eretz Cana'an, to the point that Moshe saw more of Eretz Cana'an with his eyes than Yehoshua saw with his feet. 6
On the Pasuk there "Anochi ha'Keil Beis-Eil".
Similar to the Pasuk in Divrei ha'Yamim 2, 15:8 - "ve'ha'Nevu'ah Oded ha'Navi" -
Ramban: Like one says 'ha'Ir Yerushalayim' and like "ha'Melech David" (Melachim 1, 1:1), and "veha'Ish Gavri'el" (Daniel, 9:21)
Ses the first Rashi in the Torah.
See Oznayuim la'Torah.
See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates.
What are the implications of the word "Zos ha'Aretz"?
Seforno: To preclude the land that they captured in Chutz la'Aretz, which did not require lots. 1
Seforno: Such as that of Sichon and Og - as is implied in Yehoshua. Refer to 33:33:4:1* - since it did not have the Kedushah of Eretz Yisrael, and was not therefore worthy of lots, which are decided by Ru'ach ha'Kodesh (See Rashi, 26:54). See also 34:15:0.1:1.
Why is it necessary to define the borders of Eretz Yisrael?
Rashi: Because many Mitzvos only apply inside Eretz Yisrael, and not in Chutz la'Aretz. 1
Meshech Chochmah: Because the B'nei Gad and the B'nei Reuven were not permitted to return to Eiver ha'Yarden until Yisrael had conquered and divided the land within these borders. 2
Meshech Chachmah: Even though most Mitzvos apply also in Eiver ha'Yarden (which they captured from Sichon and Og), some, such as Bikurim, apply only in Eretz Yisrael proper.
In fact, they returned before Yisrael had conquered the whole of Eretz Yisrael - because Yehoshua was Mochel them. See Oznayim la'Torah on Pasuk 13.
Why does the Torah insert the word "Asher Tipol lachem be'Nachalah"?
Rashi #1 and Seforno: Because that is the expression that goes together with the lots 1 by which the land was divided.
Rashi #2 (citing a Midrash Agadah): It hints at the fact that Hashem cast down the angels of the seven nations of Cana'an and bound them in front of Moshe, and said to him 'See, they have no strength left!'
Seforno: As in Tehilim, 22:19 and in Esther, 3:7.
