Why does it say "v'Dibarta vi'Dvarai"?
Radak: In the language 1 that I speak to you, so speak to them. They are not Lo'azos who do not understand your language (Leshon ha'Kodesh). Malbim - Bnei Golah were used to speaking Leshon Kasdim 2 (Babylonian) and the language of [other] nations. Do not say that you will need to speak in Babylonian, which you do not know 3 .
It need not be in the words that Hashem said. Only Moshe prophesized "Zeh ha'Davar" (Shemos 16:16); other Nevi'im said "Ko Amar Hashem" (Sifri Matos 153) - they told His message in their own words. (PF)
I.e. Arame'ic (Kuzari 2:68).
Did Yechezkel not know Arame'ic? Even if he was not on a Sanhedrin (its members must know all 70 languages), he should know it in order to understand Targum Onkelos, which was given at Sinai! Megilah 3a says that the Targum was forgotten and later recovered in the days of the Tana'im, but it expounds a verse in Nechemyah to discuss the Targum. If so, it was still known in the days of Yechezkel! Perhaps he understood Arame'ic, but could not speak it fluently. Refer to Bereishis 41:12:1:1*. (PF)
