1)

Why "bi'Rvos Tzadikim Yismach ha'Am"?

1.

Megilah 11a: This refers to Mordechai and Esther - "veha'Ir Shushan Tzahalah v'Samechah."

2.

Malbim: They will conduct with Tzedek and Mishpat. Their yoke will be eased, and there will be serenity in their mansions, and Hashem's Brachah on them. The verse mentions "Moshel" regarding Resha'im, but not Tzadikim, for Moshel is via force; a Tzadik does not do so. Also, he does not conduct alone, rather, he takes counsel. All of them (the Tzadik and his advisors) guide the nation on calm waters. Then Tzadikim increase - in quantity, and in grandeur.

2)

Why "bi'Mshol Rasha Ye'anach Am"?

1.

Megilah 11a: This refers to Haman - "veha'Ir Shushan Navochah."

2.

Malbim: He puts a heavy yoke on them, and there is no Mishpat and Tzedek in the country. Hashem's curse is in their houses. The Rasha rules via force, alone, for he is not Nosei Panim 1 .


1

Usually this means to favor someone; it seems that here, it means to esteem someone. (PF)

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