1)
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "mi'Levad Olas ha'Boker asher le'Olas ha'Tamid"?
1.
Rashi (in B?rachos, 51b): It implies that the Musaf is brought after the Tamid shel Boker ? which takes precedence because it is "Tamid". 1
2.
Yoma, 70a (citing R. Akiva): To teach us that the Par ha?Olah and the seven lambs of the Musaf of Yom Kipur are brought together with the morning Tamid (and not with the Tamid shel bein ha?Arbayim [like R. Eliezer]). 2
