What is the significance of Simchah here?
Rashi: To teach us that one only recites the Parshah of Bikurim during a time of Simchah - between Shevu'os and Sukos, when people are gathering their produce, their fruit, wine and oil [from the fields, and into their homes]. 1 But Bikurin that one brings between Sukos and Chanukah does not require Keri'ah.
Erchin, 11a:: It teaches us via a Gezeirah Shavah "Vesamachta" "be'Simchah u've'Tuv Leivav" - later in 27:47 that Bikurim require Shir. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: The Torah is not referring specifically to the eating of the Bikurim, 3 but to the atmosphere of Simchah that accompanied the bringing of the Bikurim, 4 as described in the third Perek of Bikurim, and which was shared by all segments of K'lal Yisrael - including the Kohanim, the Levi'im the Geirim.
See Torah Temimah, note 7. R. Chaim Paltiel ? My Rebbi was not sure if waving is Me'akev when there is no recital, though it is not clear why it should not be.
See Torah Temimah, note 41. See also Oznayim la'Torah.
Refer to 26:11:3:1*.
And which was enhanced by the fact that the Bikurim were brought during a period of Simchah, between Shavu'os and Succos, as the Gemara in Pesachim, 36b learns from this Pasuk. See also Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'Atah ve'ha'Levi'.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Vesamachta be'Chol ha'Tov"?
Arachin, 11a: To teach us, via a Gezeirah Shavah "ha'Tov" "be'Simchah u've'Tuv Leivav", in Ki Savo, 28:47, that Bikurim require Shirah. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 41.
Why does the Torah insert the word "u'le'Veisecha"?
Gitin, 16b: To obligate a man to bring Bikurim from his wife's property (Nechsei Milug) 1 and to recite the Parshah.
See Torah Temimah, note 42.
Why does the Torah mention the Levi independently?
Rashi: To teach us that Levi'im who plant in their towns are subject to Bikurim.
Why does the Torah mention the Ger independently?
Rashi (citing Makos 19a): Because he brings Bikurim but does not recite the Parshah, since he cannot say "la'Avoseinu". 1
Refer to 26:11:151:1. Rosh ? how can the (Hadar Zekenim - Levi and) Ger rejoice in Bikurim, seeing as only Kohanim are permitted to eat them? According to one opinion in the Yerushalmi (Bikurim 3:3) they sacrifice the ox that is brought with the Bikurim as a Shelamim. Perhaps it is a Mitzvah to give to the Ger, the Levi and the poor from the Shelamim! - PF) . Refer also to 26:11:1:3.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that a Ger brings but does not recite, since he cannot say "la'Avoseinu." But in the Amidah he says "Elokei Avoseinu"?
Da'as Zekenim (in Pasuk 1), Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 3) and Rosh (in Pasuk 1): With regard to Tefilah, we rely on the Yerushalmi, which says that Geirim are named after Avraham, who is called 'Av Hamon Goyim'. 1
The Moshav Zekenim (in Pasuk 5) finds this answer difficult. Da'as Zekenim and Rosh: The Yerushalmi rules like R. Yehudah, who maintains that, based on this reason, a Ger brings Bikurim and recites the Parshah.
Rashi writes that a Ger brings but does not recite, since he cannot say "la'Avoseinu." In any case he cannot recite, since he did not receive land in Eretz Yisrael?
Yerushalmi Bikurim 1:4: Geirim from the Keini (Yisro) received land - as the Torah writes in Beha'aloscha Bamidbar, 10:29 "L'chah Itanu Veheitavnu lach".
Refer to 26:11:151:1*:.
Rashi writes that after Sukos, one brings Bikurim but does not recite. Until when does he bring, and why is that?
Da'as Zekenim and Rosh: He brings until Chanukah, since there is still fruit on the trees until then, only he cannot recite the Parshah then since they are not 'Reishis'. 1
Mizrachi: Rashi explained like the first Tana in Bikurim 1:6, that one recites only at a time of Simchah. R. Yehudah ben Beseira holds that also from Sukos until Chanukah, one brings and recites!
After Chanukah, one does not bring, since "asher Tavi me'Artzecha" no longer applies - seeing as there is no fruit left in the field, even for the wild animals
