Why does the Torah switch from "Pekudei ha'Levi" in Pasuk 57 to "Mishp'chos Levi"?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because?ha?Levi? which denotes Chashivus, pertains to the three heads of the Batei Avos - the '?Legion of the King?, that was divided into ch were divided into groups. 1 The current Pasuk discusses the families of the Levi?im across the board, and therefore refers to them as ?Mishp?chos Levi?.
?Eileh Mishp?chos Levi - Mishpahas ha?Livni, Mishpachas ha?Chevroni?. Why does the Torah omit the families of Gershon?s son Shim'i, K?has?s son Uzi'el, and the sons of Yitzhar, Nefeg and Zichri?
R. Bachye: The Torah omits Shim?i, either because he died without children or because he had children but they died without children.
The Pasuk in Divrei Hayamim 1, 23 actually lists the families of Shim'i (in Pasuk 9) and Ozi'eli (in Pasuk 20). See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Eileh Mishp'chos Levi #2..
"Eileh Mishp'chos Levi". Why does the Torah not mention the family of Aharon - the Kohanim.
Ramban: In deference to Moshe.
Why does the Torah mention "Mishpachas ha'Korchi", which, in Bamidbar (3:27), was part of the family of Yitzhar?
Ramban #1 and Moshav Zekenim #1: Because at that time, Yitzhar also had grandchildren from Nefeg and Zichri; whereas now only Korach's children remained from his family, so that they took over the family name.
Ramban #2 and Moshav Zekenim #2: It was in order to highlight the fact that Korach's children remained alive, and that they were bigger Tzadikim than their father. 1
Why does the Torah not write "Mishpachas ha'Amrami", like it does by all the other families?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because Kohanim also emerged from this family, and the Torah wants to stress the fact that also they are included in "Pikudei ha'Levi".
