1)

Why does the Torah write "Es Kasp'cha" and "Ochlecha", and not 'Kesef' and 'Ochel' S'tam?

1.

Sifra: To preclude the money and the food of a Nochri, which one is permitted to lend on interest. 1

1

See Torah Temimah, note 196.

2)

Why does the Torah insert the word "Lo Sitein lo"?

1.

Bava Metzi'a, 69b: To confine the Isur Ribis to Ribis that goes directly from the Loveh to the Malveh, but not to where Reuven gives Shimon a Zuz for him to lend Levi ten Dinrim or in order to ask Levi to lend him ten Dinrim. 1

1

See Torah Temimah, note 199, who elaborates.

3)

What is the difference between this Pasuk and the Pasuk in Ki Seitzei, Devarim 23:20 "Lo Sashich la'Achicha Neshech Kesef Neshech Ochel..."?

1.

Rashi (in Devarim 23:20): The current Pasuk places a La'av on the Malveh the (lender), whereas the Pasuk there places a La'av on the Loveh (the borrower). 1

2.

Bava Metzi'a, 61: The Pasuk there also teaches us Neshech by food and Ribis by Kesef. 2

1

Refer also to Sh'mos, 22:24:6:2.

2

See Torah Temimah, citing Bava Metzi'a (Ibid). We also learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Neshech" "Neshech" that whatever applies to the Loveh also applies to the Malveh.

4)

Why does the Torah write "Marbis" here and "Tarbis" in the previous Pasuk?

1.

R. Chaim Paltiel (on Pasuk 36): The first letters spell 'Meis'. This hints that one who takes Ribis will not come to life at Techiyas ha'Mesim. 1

1

See also Ba'al ha'Turim on Pasuk 36.

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