Having said "Lo Seilech Imahem", why did Hashem need to add "Lo Sa'or es ha'Am" and "ki Baruch Hu"?
Rashi and R. Bachye #1: He added "Lo Sa'or es ha'Am" when, in response to "Lo Seilech Imahem", Bil'am asked for permission to curse them from where he was; and when he asked for permission to bless them, he added "ki Baruch Hu" - 'They are intrinsically blessed 1 (from the days of the Avos - Targum Yonasan) and do not need your blessing'. 2
R. Bachye #2: "Lo Sa'or es ha'Am"] ki Baruch Hu" is the reason behind ?Lo Seilech!? - ?Don?t go with them, since you will not be able to curse them, because I have blessed tthem?.
Ba'al ha'Turim: Hashem said "Lo Sa'or" following Bil'am's statement "Kaboh li" - Refer to 22:12:1:1 - to utter even the smallest curse.
?Lo Seilech Imahem, Lo Sa?or es ha?Am?. Now that Hashem forbade Bilam to curse or bless Yisrael, why did He forbid him to go with the messengers?
?Lo Sa?ores ha?Am ki Baruch Hu!? Seeing as Hashem blessed Yisrael, how could Bil?am?s curse negate Hashem?s blessing - and if indeed it couldn?t, why did Hashem stop Bil?am from going to curse Yisrael?
R. Bachye (on Pasuk 20): There is no question that Bil?am did not have the power to bless or to curse. 1 His power lay in his knowledge of the precise moment when Hashem was angry each mornin, and when a curse would therefore have been effective. 2
Seforno: Refer to 22:2:2:1.
With reference to the previous answer #1 - Seeing as Hashem did not intend to become angry during that entire period, why did He not allow Bil?am to go and curse Yisrael?
R. Bachye: Because He knew of the plague that he was about to send on Yisrael - See end of Parshah - andhedid not want people tosay that it came as a result of Bil?am?s curse.
