Why does the Torah write "u'Va ha'Shemesh Vetaher" and does not insert "Vetamei ad ha'Erev" at the end of the previous Pasuk?
Refer to 22:7:0.2:1.
Sifra: To compare the Tevilah to sunset (nightfall), inasmuch as, like sunset, it must be performed in one go, and not a limb at a time.
What are the connotations of the word "Vetaher"?
Rashi (on Pasuk 4): It means that the day has come to an end 1 ? which the Gemara in B'rachos, 2b, learns from the fact that the Torah does not write "Veyithar".
Seeing as the Kohen has Toveled in a Mikvah, why does he need to wait for nightfall?
Rashi (in Sotah, 29b): Because, in spite of the Tevilah, 1 until nightfall he remains a T'vul-Yom (who has the Din of a Sheini le'Tum'ah).
Which allows him to eat Ma'aser Sheini.
What is the word "min ha'Kodashim" comung to preclude?
Why does the Torah add "Ki Lachmo hu"?
Seforno: To teach us that reason the Torah allows the Kohen ro eat Terumah immediately after nightfall and does not require him to wait until he brings his Korban the next day, is because Terumah is the Kohen's staple diet. 1
Sifra: To teach us that the Kohen may eat wheat of Terumah in any way that he wants and make holes in vegetables ot Terumah as he pleases. 2
Sifra: To incorporate the the trimmings of vegetables of Terumsh in the Din of Terumah ? which therefore retain their Kedushah. 3
How will we reconcile this Pasuk with the previous Pasuk, which implies that he may eat Kodshim immediately after Toveling?