Why does the Torah insert the Parshah about going to war here?
Rashi #1, R. Bachye #1 and Hadar Zekenim: The Torah inserts it after "Ayin be'Ayin ... " to teach us that someone who (pays money 1 and Hadar Zekenim) is not missing a limb goes out to war.
Rashi #2 and R. Bachye #2: To teach us that if Yisrael carry out justice and righteousness, they will win their battles. 2
Rashi and R. Bachye: As the Pasuk writes in Tehilim, 119:121 "Asisi Mishpat va'Tzedek, Bal Tanicheini le'Oshkay".
What are the implications of the words "Ki Seitzei la'Milchamah"?
Seforno: It implies to fight a battle outside Eretz Yisrael, because regarding a Milchemes Mitzvah - in Eretz Yisrael, nobody is sent home from the battlefield.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words "Ki Seitzei la'Milchamah al Oyvecha"?
Rashi: Treat enemies as enemies - without compassion, bearing in mind that (if they win) they will not have compassion on you.
Why does the Torah write "Sus va'Rechev (singular)?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: Because in the Eyes of Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu, they are all like one horse and chariot (it is light - trivial - in His eyes to trounce all of them).
Having written "Sus va'Rechev" in the singular, why does the Pasuk then state "Am Rav mimcha"?
Rashi: Because "Mimcha" implies that it is only to you that they appear to be a vast army, but to Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu they are like one man.
What are the connotations of "Lo Siyra meihem ki Hashem Elokecha Imach"?
R. Bachye: It teaches us that our fear of Hashem should override our fear of people.
Why does the Torah juxtapose the Parshah of going to war to the previous Pasuk?


