What are the connotations of "Etein es Panai"?
Rashi #1 and Targum Yonasan: It implies that Hashem will turn aside from all other occupations and spend all His time 1 on punishing the perpetrator of this sin. 2
Rashi #2 (in Sotah, 9a) and Targum Onkelos: It means 'anger'. 3
Ramban (according to Kabalah): It means that Hashem's Great and Awesome Name will cut him off. 4
Rashi: as if it had written "P'nai" - with an 'Alef', meaning 'My time'..
See Sifsei Chachamim.
Rashi (Ibid.): Alternatively, it means 'show a face of fury' - as in Tehilim, 34:17.
Ramban: And this also explains why the Torah inserts the word "va'Ani" here, which it does not do by any other Chayav Kareis - even by Ov and Yid'oni.
What are the implications of the words " ? Etein es Panai ba'Ish Hahu"?
Sifra: It implies that the perpetrator is only considered guilty if he acts intentionally - to preclude where he was an Anus, Shogeg or if he was tricked into performing it. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 3.
What evokes Hashem's anger by Molech more than any other sin?
What are the connotations of "ve'Hichrati oso ... "?
Seforno: It refers to Kareis in Olam ha'Ba, because, once he has been put to death by stoning, Kareis in this world is no longer applicable . 1
Moshav Zekenim: It refers to someone who sinned be'Meizid, without warning; 2 because if he is warned, he is sentenced to death by stoning.
The Pasuk is discussing someone who did not do Teshuvah. But if he did, his death will atone for his sin and absolve him from Kareis.
Surely the same applies if he was warned, but Beis Din does not kill him - where he did not accept the warning, or there is a contradiction in the testimony (PF).
Why does the Torah write "ba'Ish ha'Hu" and not simply "bo"?
Rashi: To extrapolate that Kareis is confined to individuals, but not to a community. 1 .
Moshav Zekenim: Even if they all performed an Isur Kareis. Sifsei Chachamim - since the Torah does not need to teach us that the Tzibur is not subject to Kareis if only one person sinned.
Why does the Torah insert (the otherwise superfluos) phrase "Ki mi'Zar'o Nasan la'Molech"?
Rashi: To include someone who hands over his grandson or his graddaughter to Molech. 1
Rashi: In spite of the fact that the Torah in Shoftim Devarim, 18:10, specifically mentions son and daughter. See also Torah Temimah, note 4.
What is the connection between Molech and the Beis-ha'Mikdash?
Rashi and Ramban #1: "Kodesh" here, refers (not to the Beis-ha'Mikdash, but) to K'neses Yisrael, 1 who are sanctified to Hashem.
Ramban #2 (in Acharei-Mos, 18:21): In the event that the sinner visits the Beis-ha'Mikdash, all the Korbanos that he brings are Tamei and an abomination before Hashem, whilst he himself is perpetually Tamei on account of the evil that he perpetrated.
Ramban #3, Seforno and Moshav Zekenim #1: See answer #1. It means that Hashem responds to the sin of Molech by removing His Shechinah from Yisrael. 2
Moshav Zekenim #2 (citing R. Yehudah ha'Chasid): [Its priests] would say 'You go to the Mikdash Tehorim, and you do not know whether or not your Korbanos are accepted. Molech tells us the future even if we are Temei'im!' - on account of which people would go to the Beis-Mikdash be'Tum'ah.
Ramban: Just as the Pasuk states in connection with Ov and Yid'oni (See 19:31 and Yechezkel, 36:18). See also B'rachos, 35b, where, based on a Pasuk in Mishlei, 28:24, the Gemara uses a similar expression.
Why does the Torah describe Molech as a Chilul Hashem?
Ramban and Seforno: Refer to 18:21:3:1*.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because people see that in the Beis-Hamikdash one brings only animals and birds, whilst to Molech one offers even children - conveying the impression that Molech is the most awesome of all the gods.
