1)

Why does the Torah insert "ba'Mayim" twice?

1.

Sifi: To teach us that the Kohen Tovels his clothes in the same Mikvah that he Tovels himself. 1

2.

Oznayim la'Torah: To teach us that he should not Tovel his clothes in the same Mikvah that he Tovels himself. 2

1

See Oznayim la'Torah DH 've'ha'Soreif osah ... ' #1.

2

See Oznayim la'Torah. DH 've'ha'Soreif osah ... ' #1.

2)

Why does the Torah need to inform us that the one who burns the Parah is Tamei and requires Kibus Begadim? Why can we not learn it with a Kal va'Chomer from the previous Pasuk from the one who throws the three items into the fire?

1.

Sifri: We do indeed learn it from there via a Kal va'Chomer, and the current Pasuk incorporates all those who deal with the Parah from beginning to end in the Din of Kibus Begadim, Tevilas ha'Guf and Ha'arev Shemesh (awaiting nightfall) to become completely Tahor...

3)

According to the opinion that all the Avodos must be performed by the Kohen Gadol, seeing as the Shechitah renders the Kohen who Shechts the Parah Tamei, how can he proceed with the subsequent Avodos, seeing as he is Tamei?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: The Tum'ah of the Parah Adumah is different than other Tum'os inasmuch as it is not subject to Kareis if one subsequently enters the Beis Hamikdash or eats Kodshim 1 - in which case we can also say that it only takes efect after all the Avodos have been completed. 2

1

Oznayim la'Torah, citing the Tosefta on Shevu'os, 1:4.

2

See Oznayim la'Torah DH 've'ha'Soreif osah ... ' #2, who elaborates at length.

4)

What is "Bigadav" (his Begadim) coming to preclude?

1.

Sifri: It precludes the one who burns garments that are stricken with Tzara'as from Kibus Begadim. 1

1

See Torah Temimah, note 39.

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