What is the meaning of "ha'Kohanim ha'Levi'im"?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: It means the Kohanim who are from the tribe of Levi. 1
Ibn Ezra: It means the Kohanim who are Meyuchas after Levi, since not all Kohanim are (as the Ibn Ezra explained above). 2
Malbim: It is a Mitzvah to have Kohanim and Levi'im on the Sanhedrin, since they were chosen to Pasken and to teach. 3
Ha'amek Davar: It rededre to the Chachamim. 4
Refer to 17:9:151:1.
I did not find this. Perhaps he means that Chalalim are not considered Levi'im. (We find that a Kohenes who became a Chalalah loses her Kedushas Leviyah ? B'choros 47a ? PF).
As the Torah writes in ve'Zos ha'Berachah, 33:10 "Yoru Mishpatecha le'Ya'akov." Refer also to 17:9:2.1:3.
Llike he explained in Eikev, 10:8
Why does the Torah mention the Kohanim here?
Sanhedrin, 52a: To teach us that Beis-Din have a mandate to carry out the death-sentence 1 only as long as there are Kohanim serving in the Beis-Hamikdash.
See Torah Temimah, note 45.
Why, after stating "Vekamta Ve'alisa el ha'Makom" - in the previous Pasuk, does the Torah add first "u'Vasa el ha'Kohanim", then "ve'el ha'Shofet"?
Sifri #1: To teach us that three Batei-Din sat in the Beis ha'Mikdash: One at the entrance to the Har ha'Bayis, one (consisting of Kohanim) at the entrance to the Azarah 1 and one, in the Lishkas ha'Gazis, 2 from which Torah went out to Yisrael.
Sifri #2: "u'Vasa el ha'Kohanim" comes to include Yavneh (not regarding the Din of Zaken Mamrei, but) regarding the obligation to obey their rulings. 3
Sifri #3: "el ha'Kohanim ve'ha'Levi'im" teaches us that the Beis-Din ha'Gadol should contain Kohanim and Levi'im, 4 and "ve'el ha'Shofet", that if it dosn't, it is nevertheless Kasher.
See Torah Temimah, note 41, who elaborates.
People would go first to the first Beis-Din, and if they could not answer, to the second one, and it is only if also the second beis-Din could not answer either that thay would go to the Beis-Din ha'Gadol in the Lashkas ha'Gazis (Oznayim la'Torah).
With regard to the Beis-Din ha'Gadol having the final say. See Torah Temimah, note 44.
See Torah Temimah, note 46.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "asher Yih'yeh ba'Yamim ha'heim"?
Rashi: To teach us that one is obligated to go to the Dayanim of one's time, even if they are not on the level of the Dayanim of previous generations. 1
Sanhedrin, 28b: To teach us that one ispermitted to go to a Dayan who was previously related, but is no longer related. 2
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "D'var ha'Mishpat"?
Sifri: To include the details of the judgment, 1 over which the Beis-Din ha'Gadol also have the final say.
See Torah Temimah, note 49.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that "ha'Kohanim ha'Levi'im" means the Kohanim who are from the tribe of Levi. Why does the Torah menton this?
