What are the connotations of "Ki Yipalei Mimcha"?
Rashi: It means that it is separated (covered or hidden) from you.
Seforno: Even though a Beis-Din was appointed in each town to judge the residents of their town, when a query arises concerning the the traditional ruling from Sinai, they do not have the authority to issue a ruling based on their own logic ? the matter must be taken to the Bei-Din ha'Gadol in Yerushalayim.
Sanhedrin, 87a; "Ki Yipalei" refers to a member of the Sanhedrin (Mufla she'be'Beis-Din), and "mimcha" means that he argues with the Sanhedrin concerning the fixing of a leap-year and of the months. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: It refers to a Beis-Din who cannot decide a certain Halachah, due to a difference of opinion within their ranks.
Whereas a Talmid is not subject to the Din of a Zakein Mamrei.
What are the implications of "Davar la'Mishpat"?
Sanhedrin, 87a #1; "Davar" refers to a Halachah le'Moshe mi'Sinai and "la'Mishpat", to something that is learned from the thirteen principles of R. Yishmael.
Sahedrin, 87a #2: We learn via a Gezeirah Shavah "Davar" "Davar" from the Par He'elam Davra, in Vayikra, 4:13, that the Zakein Mamrei is only Chayav if he rules concerning a matter that is subject to Kareis be'Meizid and a Chatas, be'Shogeg. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 32.
What are the implications of " ? bein Dam le'Dam"?
Rashi, Ramban and Targum Yonasan: It implies that the Beis-Din does not know whether the blood of a woman (Nidus, Zivus or Yoledes ? Ramban) 1 is Tamei or Tahor. 2
Rashbam: It implies that the Beis-Din does not know whether the blood of a man was spilt (whether the accused is guilty of murder or not.
What are the implications of "bein Din le'Din"?
Rashi, Ramban and Targum Yonasan: It implies that the Beis-Din does not know whether the acused is innocent or guilty (regarding monetary issues ? Rashbam [or capital punishment or Malkos ? Ramban]). 1
See Torah Temimah, note 36.
What are the implications of "Bein Nega la'Nega"
Rashi, Ramban, Rashbam, Targum Onkelos, Targum Yonasan: It implies that the Beis-Din does not know whether a Nega is Tzara'as or not (regarding Tzara'as of people, garments or houses ? Ramban). 1
See Torah Temimah, note 37.
What is "Divrei Rivos" referring to?
Rashi, Seforno, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It refers to the Chachamim of the town who argue over the matter - some say Tamei and others say Tahor; some declare the accused Chayav, others Patur. 1
Ramban: It incorporates a. giving a Sotah the water to drink; b. breaking the neck of the Eglah Arufah and c. purifying a Metzora.
Sanhedrin, 87a: "Divrei" incorporates Charamim, Arachim and Hekdeishos, and "Rivos" - see answer #2, and "Rivos", the drinking of a Sotah, the breaking of the neck of an El;ah Arufah and the Taharah of s Metzora.
Seforno: Even though the Torah appointed Dayanim in every town, they do not have a mandate to resolve doubts that arise in the tradition handed down from Sinai, but are obligated to consult the Beis-Din ha'Gadol, as they must also do if there is no majority opinion in their own Beis-Din.
What are the connotations of "bi'She'arecha"?
Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means in your towns - Targum Onkelos, or 'in your Batei-Din - Targum Yonasan.
Sanhedrin, 87a: It incorporates Leket, Shikchah and Pe'ah in the Din of Zakein Mamrei. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 38, who elaborates and clarifies how all the cases can lead ro a Chiyuv Kareis..
What is the meaning of "ve'Kamta ve'Alisa"?
Rashi (In the original manuscript): It is coming to teach us that the fate of the Zakein Mamrei is due to the location ? because he rebelled against the Beis-Din ha'Gadol, who sit in the Lishkas ha'Gazis (in the Beis-ha'Mikdash). 1
Sanhedrin, 87a: It means 'Get up from the Beis-Din and go up to the Beis-Hamikdash - which teaches us that the Beis-Hamikdash is the highest spot in Eretz Yisrael. 2
What is the significance of the phrase "ha'Makom asher Yivchar Hashem ... "?
Rashi (in his initial explanation of the Chumash): It teaches us that the liability of Zakein Mamrei depends on the location. He must rebel against the Beis-Din ha'Gadol in the Lishkas ha'Gazis (But if he found them in the area of Beis Pagi 1 and rebelled against them there, he does not have the Din of a Zakein Mamrei - Sanhedrin, 14b) - because the "Makom" is crucial.
A location that is just inside the walls of Yerushalayim - See Torah Temimah, note 42.
Seeing as the Torah is discussing a Beis-Din who disagree over a certain Halachah (See 17:8:1:3), why is the entire Parshah written in the singular?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because their visit to the Beis-Din ha'Gadol is not in the form of two disputing groups, to find out which of them is right, but as one group, to clarify the Halachah.
