Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "ha'Ish ha'Hu" and ha'Ishah ha'Hi"?
Sifri: To teach us that someone who sinned be'Oneis, be'Shogeg or who was tricked into sinning is Patur. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 12.
"Vehotzeisa es ha'Ish ha'Hu O es ha'Ishah ha'Hi ? ". Why does the Torah need to mention a woman independently?
Ramban (on Pasuk #2): Because, due to the principle ?Nashim Da'atan Kalos' ?Women are gullible'), we might otherwise have thought that she was talked into worshipping idols following the sign or wonder that someone performed, and that she did not really mean what she did. 1
Seforno: Because we might otherwise have thought that she acted out of stupidity, and not out of conviction, in which case it is unnecessary to put her to death by the gate where she worshipped. 2
Why does the Pasuk need to repeat "O es ha'Ishah ha'Hi?
Seforno: Because we might otherwise have thought that she acted out of stupidity, and not out of conviction, in which case it is unnecessary to put her to death by the gate where she worshipped.
Which gate is "El She'arecha" referring to?
Rashi and Seforno: It means 'to the gate where he worshipped', 1 (and where he anticipated a salvation, thus demonstrating the powerlessness of the god that he worshipped - Seforno). 2
Targum Yonasan: It means 'To the gate of Beis-Din' (where he was sentenced to death). 3
Rashi: Not the gate where he was sentenced to death - See Torah Temimah, note 13 - since we learn the location with a Gezeirah Shavah "She'arecha" "She'arecha" from Pasuk 2.
See Torah Temimah, note 14, DH 've'Da', who discusses the Ramban, and refer to 17:5:1.3:1.
See Na'ar Yonasan. See also Rashi and Targum Onkelos (where the text "li'Sera Beis Dinach' has been changed to 'le'Kirvach' - the town where he worshipped).. See also Torah Temimah, note 14, and Oznayim la'Torah, who both elaborate.
What is "es ha'Ish" and "es ha'Ishah" coming to preclude?
Sanhedrin, 16b: They preclude an Ir ha'Nidachas, where the entire community sinned, from the Din of "She'arech" - to teach us that they are not judged by a Beis-Din of twenty-three, but by the Beis-Din ha'Gadol of seventy-one. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 16.
What does the Torah mean when it writes "el She'arecha"?
Rashi (in Sanhedrin, 15b) and Targum Yonasan: It means 'to the Beis-Din in your town'.
Seforno: It means 'to the gate of the town where he worfhipped - to demonsrate tat the god that he orshipped willl not save him from the death-sentence.
Why does the Torah add the suffix "el She'arecha"?
Kesuvos, 45b: To teach us that regarding a town whose inhabitants are mainly Nochrim, the sinner is not stoned by the gate where he worshipped, but by the gate where he was sentenced to death. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 15 & 14.
What are the implications of "es ha'Ish O es ha'Ishah"?
Sanhedrin, 16b: It implies that one only takes an individual to the gate (the town) where he worshipped, but if an entire town worshipped Avodah Zarah, it is judges by the Sanhedrin ha'Gadol and killed by the gate where they worshipped. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 16.
How will we reconcile the current Pasuk - "u'Sekaltam ba'Avanim" with the Pasuk in Emor Vayikra, 23:23 - "Vayirg'mu oso Aven"? "
