Why does the Torah write "Venasatz es ha'Bayis", in the singular?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the neighbor is not obligated to assist in the demolishing of the owner's house. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah as to why.
Seeing as the Pasuk specifies "es Avanav, es Eitzav ve'eis Kol Afar ha'Bayis", why does the Torah find it necessary to add "es ha'Bayis"?
Sifra: To teach us that a house is only subject to Nig'ei Batim if it comprises stones, wood 1 and mortar. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: Nevertheless, the Torah did not mention wood above, in Pesukim 40, 41& 42, either, because the major component of a house is the stone, or, because- according to the Rambam and Ramban, who explain that Tzara'as Batim is supernatural, that is true of Tzara'as on stones, which are inanimate, whereas wood, which is subject to growth and life, is also subject to decay, and the miracle is less blataant.
Oznayim la'Torah: According to the Zohar, rhis is because of the Nega reappears it is a sign that the house was built for Avodah Zarah
Why does the Torah write "Avanav","Eitzav" and "Afar ha'Bayis", and not simply ha'Avanim, ha'Eitzim and 've'he'Afar?
Sifra: To preclude the stones, the wood and the plaster of the attic that is built on top of the house.
What is the status of the stones and mortar of the demolished house?
