What are the implications of theword "ve'Im Dal Hu"?
Erchin,17a: It implies that a rich man who makes a Neder to bring the Korban of a Metzora must bring the Korban of a rich Metzora, even if the Metzora in question is actually poor. 1
Erchin,17b: It implies that it is only in the case of a poor Metzora that we do not go after the Metzora's status, but not if he is rich. 2 Consequently, a rich man who makes a Neder to bring the Korban of a poor Metzora must bring the Korban of a rich Metzora.
Why does the add (otherwise superfluous) phrase "ve'Ein Yado Maseges?
Erchin 17a: To permit a poor man who makes a Neder to bring the Korban of a Metzora who is poor to bring the Korban of a poor Metzora. 1
Sifra: To teach us that, even though a rich man wealth decreased ? from a hundred Zuz to fifty, he remains obligated to bring to bring the Korban of a Metzora Ashir.
See Torah Temimah, note 93.
Now that the Torah writes "ve'Ein Yado Maseges",why does it also need to write "ve'Im Dal Hu"?
Sifra: To teach us that if the rich Noder posseses but cannot find buyers, he is nevertheless obligated to bring the Korban of a rich Metzora ? seeing as he he is not poor.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Keves Echad"?
Sifra: In order not to learn from the poor Tamei Mikdash, who also has the option of bringing a smaller Korban ? but who brings two (birds) instead of a lamb. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 97.
Bearing in mind that atonement comes about only through sprinkling the blood, why does the Torah write "Tenufah Lechaper"?
Yoma,5a: To teach us that, if the owner treats theTenufah as if it was the remnant of a Mitzvah and fails to perform it, it is as if he has not been atoned for, 1 even though, in fact, he does attain it.
See Torah Temimah, note 98.
Why does the Torah write "ve'Isaron So'les Echad", and not juxtapose "Echad" to "Isaron" ?like it did above in Pasuk10?
Menachos: To teach us that each Isaron that he brings requires a Log of oil. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 99.
Why does the Torah place "le'Minchah" before the Log Shemen, instead of after it where it belongs?
Menachos, 89a: To teach us that someone who undertakes to bring a Minchah must bring the amount of flour that is required to mix with a Log of oil ? one Isaron (a tenth of an Eifah).
Why does the Torah insert the (Otherwise superfluous) word ve'Isaron So'les Echad"?
Rashi: To teach us that the Isaron of flour is the Minchas Nesachim of the "Keves Echad" mentioned earlier in the Pasuk. 1
Presumably, this is because we might otherwise have thought that it comes as an independent Korban to make up for the deficiency of one of the two lambs of a Metzora Ashir ? and the two birds for the other lamb.
What purpose does the Log Shemen serve?
Refer to 14:10:3:1.
Seeing as the Log Shemen is equivalent to that of the Metzora Ashir, why does the Torah see fit to mention it?
Sifra: Because, since an Ashir brought three lambs and an Ani only one, had the Torah not prescribed a Log, a third of a Log would have sufficed.
