Why does the Torah write "Yerakrak" and "Adamdam", and not simply 'Yarok' and 'Adom'?
Why does the Torah insert the word "Yerakrak O Adamdam"?
Sifra: To teach us that if the two colors are mixed, they are not Tamei.
Why does the Torah write "Ve'hayah (singular) ha'Nega" and not 'Vehayu' (with reference to the two colors)?
Sifra: To teach us that half a Shi'ur of each of the two colors combine to make up the Shi'ur Tum'ah.
Why does the Torah change from "Meleches Or" in Pasuk 48, to "K'li Or"?
Sifra: To preclude shoe-laces - which are not considered Keilim - from the Din of Nig'ei Begadim. 1
Since they are not attached to the shoes (Torah Temimah).
Why does the Torah insert "Nega Tzara'as Hu" before the owner has shown the Beged to the Kohen?
Sifra: The Torah inserts it only to teach us that Tzara'as Begadim applies even to a garment that is fit for a rich man but not for a poor man, a poor man but not for a rich man, and even if it is not fit for either of them. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 113.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Nega Tzara'as Hu"?
Sifra: To teach us that by Nig'ei Begadim too, the Shi'ur Tum'ah is a ki'Geris.
