Bearing in mind that "ve'ha'Tzaru'a" in the following Pasuk, comes to include a woman, why does the Torah write "Ish Tzaru'a ... "?
Sotah. 23b: To preclude a woman from Peri'ah and Perimah (in the following Pasuk) exclusively. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 177.
Why does the Torah add the words "Tamei Yetam'enu ha'Kohen"?
Rashi: To include all other Tum'os - in addition to Nesakim - in the Dinim recorded in the following Pasuk.
What are the implications of the words "be'Rosho Nig'o"?
Oznayim la'Torah #1 (citing commentaries): If his head is smitten, it is a sign that he had false Hashkafos (views that clash with Torah-ideoligy), based in the head 1 or it hints at idolatrous thoughts (and Avodah-Zarah is referred to as 'Rosh'. 2
Oznayim la'Torah #2: The fact that his hair had fallen out was a warning signal that his head had now become a location that was subject to Tum'as Nega'im. 3
Oznayim la'Torah: Which explains why the Torah concludes with such forceful and multiple expressions - specifcally here.
Sanhedrin, 107a.
Refer to 13:44:2:1*.
