Why does the Torah need to mention "Ish ve'Ishah" again?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because we would otherwise have precluded women from the Din of Nesakim, since they generally do not have beards - to teach us that, in the event that a woman does have a beard, it is subject to Nesakim just like that of a man.
Why does the Torah write "ve'Ish O Ishah" and not ?Ish ve?Ishah? (See Torah Temimah, note 124).
Sifra: To incorporate a Tumtum and an Androginus in the Din of Tum'as Nesakim.
Why does the Torah write "ki Yih'yeh bo (singular), and not "ki Yih'yeh bahem" (plural)?
Why does the Torah write 'be'Rosh O be'Zakan" and not 'u'be'Zakan' (See Torah Temimah, note 126)?
Sifra: To teach us that the head and the beard (half a G'ris on one and half a G'ris on the other) do not combine.
