Seeing as "Tzara'as" is feminine, why does the Pasuk write "Tzara'as Hu"?
Rashi: Because it refers to the word "Basar" mentioned earlier in the Pasuk.
What is the word "ha'Basar ha'Chai Tamei Hu" coming to preclude?
Sifra #1: It precludes where he appeared to the Kohen covered with Tzara'as and then, after Hesger, the tip of one of the twenty-four limbs 1 became revealed 2 - in such a case the Kohen declares him Tahor.
Sifra #2: It precludes two white hairs that return from being a Si'man Tum'ah. 3
Refer to 13:14:1:1*.
See Torah Temimah, note 81.
Oznayim la'Torah: This is because, as opposed to a Michyah, which negates the complete whiteness of "Kulo Hafach Lavan", two white hairs are considered as taking up no space, in which case the whiteness remains complete. See Oznayim la'Torah.
