Why did Hashem add the (otherwise superfluous) words "Asher Shibarta"?
Shabbos, 87a and Targum Yonasan: To teach us that He agreed with Moshe foe breaking the Luchos - as if it had written 'Ye'asher (Kochacha) she'Shibarta (thank you for breaking them)'! 1
See also Torah Temimah, citing the Yerushalmi Ta'anis, 4:4, which maintains that Hashem actually instructed Moshe to break the Luchos. See note 3.
Where did Moshe ultimately place the broken Luchos?
Rashi (in B'rachos, 8b) and Ramban: Hashem instructed him to place them in the Aron together with the second Luchos. 1
Menachos, 99a: In order to juxtapose them to "Vesamtam ba'Aron" - to teach us that the broken Luchos were placed in the Aron together with the second ones. And we learn from here that one is forbidden to belittle a Talmid-Chacham who forgot his learning. 2
After Betzalel built the Aron for the Mishkan, the Beraisa of Meleches ha'Mishkan (Perek 6) and R. Yehudah ben Lakish (Yerushalmi Shekalim 6:1) hold that the Torah and the broken Luchos were in separate Aronos. R. Bachye - the latter (whole) Luchos were in the Aron in the Ohel Mo'ed (with the Torah). The broken Luchos were in the Aron that Moshe made. Tosefta Sotah 7:18 and Rabbanan in the Yerushalmi hold that the whole and broken Luchos were in the same Aron. Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim (both in Pasuk 1) and Rosh - that this was only in the Beis ha'Mikdash; before this, they were in separate Aronos.
Menachos (Ibid.): Provided it was through no fault of his own - such as failing to revise what he learnt. See also Torah Temimah, note 5.
How will we reconcile the current Pasuk and Pasuk 4, which imply that Hashem inscribed the second Luchos - and so is implied in Ki Sissa Sh'mos, 34:1 - with the Pasuk in Ki Sissa Sh'mos, 34:28, which implies that Moshe inscribed them, like Hashem commanded him there in Pasuk 27?
Refer to Sh'mos 34:28:1:2 & 4 and notes.
