MENACHOS 10 (9 Elul) - Dedicated to commemorate the Yahrzeit of  Chana bas Mordechai Eliezer z'l.

1)

(a)What did Rebbi Yirmiyah ask Rebbi Zeira concerning the phrase "Al Bohen Yado ha'Yemanis ve'al Bohen Raglo ha'Yemanis" (in connection with the placing of the oil of the Metzora Ashir)?

(b)Why is it seemingly redundant?

(c)Rebbi Zeira replied that one of them comes to include the side of the thumb and the big toe. On what basis does he Darshen like this? From which word does he learn it?

(d)What does he then Darshen from the other "al"?

(e)Having written by Metzora ...

1. ... Ashir (also in connection with the placing of the oil) "al Dam ha'Asham", why does the Torah then write by Metzora Ani as well "al M'kom Dam ha'Asham"?

2. ... Ani "al M'kom Dam ha'Asham", why does it then write by Metzora Ashir as well "al Dam ha'Asham"?

1)

(a)Rebbi Yirmiyah asked Rebbi Zeira that the phrase "Al Bohen Yado ha'Yemanis ve'al Bohen Raglo ha'Yemanis" - is seemingly redundant ...

(b)... since the Torah has already written that he must place the oil on the location of the blood of the Asham.

(c)Rebbi Zeira replied that one of them comes to include the side of the thumb and the big toe - because the word "al" also implies beside (only he would then have to place both the blood and the oil there).

(d)From the other "al" - he precludes Tzidedei Tzedadin (the flesh below the thumb and the big toe), because "al" does not have connotations of below.

(e)In spite of having written by Metzora ...

1. ... Ashir (also in connection with the placing of the oil) "al Dam ha'Asham", the Torah writes by Metzora Ani "al M'kom Dam ha'Asham" as well, to teach us that - even if the blood has been wiped away, he should place the oil on the exact location where the blood was.

2. ... Ani "al M'kom Dam ha'Asham", it writes by Metzora Ashir as well "al Dam ha'Asham" to teach us that - even if the blood is still there, he should place the oil on top of it (and the blood is not a Chatzitzah [an interruption]).

2)

(a)The only remaining problem, says Rava, is why the Torah writes "Yemanis". Which "Yemanis" is he referring to?

(b)What exactly is the problem?

(c)Rava therefore scraps the original D'rashah of "Kaf" (to invalidate Kemitzas S'mol). He now Darshens "Yad", "Regel", "Ozen" and "S'malis" of a Metzora Ashir. What does he learn from the Gezeirah-Shavah ...

1. ... "Yad" "Yad" (with regard to Kemitzah)?

2. ... "Regel" "Regel" (with regard to Chalitzah)?

(d)In which connection does he Darshen "Ozen" "Ozen"?

2)

(a)The only remaining problem, says Rava, is why the Torah writes "Yemanis" - by the placing of the oil on the hand and the foot of both the Metzora Ashir and by Metzora Ani?

(b)The problem is that - seeing as the Torah has already written that one places the oil either "al Dam ha'Asham" or "al M'kom ha'Asham, we know on which hand and foot the oil must be placed.

(c)Rava therefore scraps the original D'rashah of "Kaf" (to invalidate Kemitzas S'mol). He now Darshens "Yad", "Regel", "Ozen" and "S'malis" of Metzora Ashir. He learn from the Gezeirah-Shavah ...

1. ... "Yad" "Yad" that - if the Kohen performs Kemitzah with his left hand, it is Pasul.

2. ... "Regel" "Regel" that - Chalitzah from the left foot is Pasul.

(d)Likewise, he Darshens "Ozen" "Ozen" - with regard to an Eved Ivri, to invalidate piercing his left ear, should he ask to continue serving his master beyond the six-year period.

3)

(a)How does Rav Shisha b'rei de'Rav Idi explain the second "S'malis" by Metzora Ashir, according to Rava?

(b)But did we not state earlier that the second "S'malis" is a 'Miy'ut Achar Miy'ut' which comes to include the right hand?

(c)We ask what Rava learns from the two additional "S'malis" written by Metzora Ani, and we answer by citing Tana de'bei Rebbi Yishmael. What does Tana de'bei Rebbi Yishmael say about any Parshah in the Torah that is repeated?

(d)What is then the Chidush that prompted the Torah to write the Parshah of Metzora Ani?

3)

(a)Rav Shisha b'rei de'Rav Idi explains the second "S'malis" by Metzora Ashir, according to Rava, to invalidate placing the oil in the Kohen's right palm (because we would otherwise have learned that if where S'mol is Pasul, Y'min is Kasher, certainly where S'mol is Kasher, Y'min should be Kasher).

(b)Even though we stated earlier that the second "S'malis" is a 'Miy'ut Achar Miy'ut' which comes to include the right hand, we cannot say that here - because following the various Gezeirah-Shavahs, we would have also Darshened "Kaf" "Kaf" to require the right hand, and to preclude the left. "S'malis" must therefore come to include the left-hand, and not to exclude the right.

(c)We ask what Rava learns from the two additional "S'malis" written by Metzora Ani, and we answer by citing Tana de'bei Rebbi Yishmael, who says that any Parshah in the Torah that is repeated - is only repeated on account of the Chidush that it contains, in which case we can no longer Darshen all the words that the Torah repeats there from Metzora Ashir ...

(d).. and the Chidush that prompted the Torah to write the Parshah of Metzora Ani is - the fact that an Ani is entitled to bring different Korbanos than an Ashir (in other words, the Korban Olah ve'Yored itself is the Chidush).

4)

(a)Rabah bar bar Chanah quoted Resh Lakish. What did he say in connection with the Torah's use of "Etzba" and "Kehunah"?

(b)Assuming the source for this statement is the Pasuk in Metzora "Vetaval ha'Kohen es Etzba'o ha'Yemanis", what does this lead us to believe?

(c)That is why we learn Haza'as ha'Dam by Chatas from there ("Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o"). What problem does this create with Kemitzah, where the Mishnah invalidates Kemitzah bi'Semol? What does the Torah write in connection with Kemitzah?

(d)How does Rava therefore reinterpret Resh Lakish's principle?

4)

(a)Rabah bar bar Chanah quotes Resh Lakish, who states that, whenever the Torah writes "Etzba" and "Kehunah" - the point to which it relates is crucial to the Avodah.

(b)Assuming the source for this statement to be the Pasuk "Vetaval ha'Kohen es Etzba'o ha'Yemanis", this leads us to believe that - it is only when the Torah writes both "Etzba" and "Kehunah" that Yemanis is crucial.

(c)That is why we learn Haza'as ha'Dam by Chatas from there ("Velakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o"). The problem this creates with Kemitzah, where the Mishnah invalidates Kemitzah bi'Semol is that - the Torah writes 'Kehunah' there, but not "Etzba".

(d)So Rava reinterprets Resh Lakish principle - to read (not "Etzba" and "Kehunah", but) "Etzba" or "Kehunah".

5)

(a)Abaye queries Rava from the Mishnah in Yoma. What does the Tana there say about carrying the right hind-leg of the Tamid on to the Mizbe'ach?

(b)Based on the Pasuk in Vayikra (with regard to taking the limbs on to the Kevesh [the ramp]) "Vehikriv ha'Kohen es ha'Kol ha'Mizbechah", what does Abaye now ask on Rava from the Mishnah in Yoma?

(c)What do we answer? What makes Holachah different than other Avodos?

(d)The Kashya remains however, from Kabalas ha'Dam, which is certainly indispensable. What does Rebbi Shimon say about Kabalah, which clashes with Resh Lakish's principle?

(e)Indeed, we reply, Resh Lakish's principle goes according to the Rabbanan, and not according to Rebbi Shimon. What does Rebbi Shimon say?

5)

(a)However, Abaye queries Rava from the Mishnah in Yoma, which rules that - the Kohen carried the right hind-leg of the Tamid on to the Mizbe'ach with his left-hand, with the skin facing outwards.

(b)Based on the Pasuk in Vayikra (with regard to taking the limbs on to the Kevesh [the ramp]) "Vehikriv ha'Kohen es ha'Kol ha'Mizbechah", Abaye now queries Rava that - seeing as the Torah writes 'Kehunah' with regard to Holachas Eivarim, carrying them with the left hand ought to render the Korban Pasul?

(c)And we answer that Holachah is different than other Avodos - inasmuch as it is in itself dispensable (since the Kohen can receive the blood next to the Mizbe'ach, or hand the bowl down a line of Kohanim without moving from the spot).

(d)The Kashya remains however, from Kabalas ha'Dam, which is certainly indispensable, and by which the Torah writes "Vehikrivu B'nei Aharon es ha'Dam" - yet Rebbi Shimon validates Kabalah bi'Semol (as we learned in our Mishnah).

(e)Indeed, we reply, Resh Lakish's principle goes according to the Rabbanan, and not according to Rebbi Shimon - who requires both 'Etzba' and 'Kehunah' to render indispensible (in the way that we initially interpreted Resh Lakish).

6)

(a)What does Rebbi Shimon say in a Beraisa about the Torah's use of 'Yad' and 'Etzba'?

(b)But did we not just explain that Rebbi Shimon requires both 'Etzba' and 'Kehunah'?

(c)What does Rebbi Shimon then Darshen from 'Kehunah'?

6)

(a)Rebbi Shimon says in a Beraisa - that wherever the Torah uses the Lashon 'Yad' or 'Etzba' - it is crucial.

(b)When we just explained that Rebbi Shimon requires both 'Etzba' and 'Kehunah', we meant that - 'Kehunah' requires 'Etzba', (but 'Etzba' does not require 'Kehunah').

(c)Rebbi Shimon Darshens from 'Kehunah' that - the Kohen must wear the Bigdei Kehunah, to be considered fit to do the Avodah.

7)

(a)If Rebbi Shimon does not consider 'Kehunah' on its own to be crucial, then (bearing in mind that the Torah only writes 'Kehunah' by Zerikah) why does he remain silent when, in the Mishnah in Zevachim, the Chachamim invalidate Zerikah bi'Semol?

(b)Why do we not ask the same Kashya on Kemitzah, where the Torah writes 'Kehunah' ("ve'Kamatz ha'Kohen") but not 'Etzba', and we learned in our Mishnah 'Kamatz bi'Semol, Pasul'? Why does Rebbi Shimon not dispute it?

(c)What does Rebbi Shimon say in the Beraisa about ...

1. ... Kibeil bi'Semol?

2. ... Zarak bi'Semol?

7)

(a)Rebbi Shimon does indeed not consider 'Kehunah' on its own to be crucial, and (bearing in mind that the Torah only writes 'Kehunah' by Zerikah) his silence when, in the Mishnah in Zevachim, the Chachamim invalidate Zerikah bi'Semol, is meaningless - since he argues in a Beraisa.

(b)We cannot ask the same Kashya on Kemitzah, where the Torah writes 'Kehunah' ("ve'Kamatz ha'Kohen") but not 'Etzba', and we learned in our Mishnah 'Kamatz bi'Semol, Pasul', since the reason Rebbi Shimon does not dispute it is - because the Torah refers to Minchah as 'Kodesh Kodashim, ka'Chatas ve'che'Asham'.

(c)Rebbi Shimon says in the Beraisa that ...

1. ... Kibeil bi'Semol - Kasher.

2. ... Zarak bi'Semol - Kasher.

10b-------------------10b

8)

(a)Seeing as the Torah writes "ve'Kamatz ha'Kohen", why, according to the Rabbanan, does Rava need "Yad" "Yad" from Metzora Ashir, to invalidate Kemitzah bi'Semol?

(b)We ask why Rebbi Shimon (who does not require Kidush Kometz), needs "Yad" "Yad". On what grounds can we ask on Rebbi Shimon even according to those who maintain that he does require Kidush Kometz?

(c)What is the problem? Why can Rebbi Shimon not learn from "Yad" "Yad" that Kamatz bi'Semol is Pasul?

(d)We answer that Rebbi Shimon learns like Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya, who Darshens the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the Minchah) "Kodesh Kodashim hi, ka'Chatas ve'che'Asham". What does he learn from ...

1. ... "ka'Chatas"?

2. ... "ve'che'Asham"?

8)

(a)Despite the fact that the Torah writes "ve'Kamatz *ha'Kohen*", Rava still needs "Yad" "Yad" from Metzora Ashir - to invalidate bi'Semol the Kidush Kemitzah (placing the Kemitzah into a K'li), to carry to the Mizbe'ach).

(b)We ask why Rebbi Shimon (who does not require Kidush Kometz), needs "Yad" "Yad". In fact, we can ask on Rebbi Shimon even according to those who maintain that he does require Kidush Kometz - because he validates it with the left-hand (as we will see shortly).

(c)Nor can Rebbi Shimon learn from "Yad" "Yad" that Kamatz bi'Semol is Pasul - because he knows that from another D'rashah (as we will now see).

(d)And we answer that Rebbi Shimon learns like Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya, who Darshens the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the Minchah) "Kodesh Kodashim hi ka'Chatas ve'che'Asham. He learns from ...

1. ... "ka'Chatas" that - when the Kohen comes to bring the Kometz on the Mizbe'ach, then if he decides to bring it with his hand, then he must use his right-hand, like the Avodah of a Chatas.

2. ... "ve'che'Asham" that - should he decide to bring it in a K'li Shareis, then he may take it in his left hand, like an Asham Metzora (where the Kohen is permitted to use his left hand, as we learned earlier).

9)

(a)We conclude that Rebbi Shimon needs "Yad" "Yad" to teach us that Kemitzah bi'Semol is Pasul even by a Minchas Chotei. Why would we have thought otherwise?

9)

(a)We conclude that Rebbi Shimon needs "Yad" "Yad" to teach us that Kemitzah bi'Semol is Pasul even by a Minchas Chotei. We would otherwise have thought that he permits it - because, since he exempts a Minchas Chotei from Shemen and Levonah (so that his Korban should not be Mehudar), so too will he permit Kemitzas S'mol (for the same reason).

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