1)

(a)Our Mishnah rules that if a woman married through the testimony of one witness, and her husband returns, she is Patur from bringing a Korban. Why is that?

(b)What is the difference between the Korban Chatas brought by the Beis-Din that erred in its ruling and one that is brought by an individual?

1)

(a)Our Mishnah rules that if a woman married through the testimony of one witness, and her husband returns, she is Patur from bringing a Korban - because, since she married though the ruling of Beis-Din, it is the Beis-Din who must bring a Chatas (and not her).

(b)The difference between the Korban Chatas brought by the Beis-Din that erred in its ruling and one that is brought by an individual is - that they bring a bull, whilst he brings a she-lamb or a she-goat.

2)

(a)Ze'iri maintains that the Halachah is in fact, like Tani Bei Medrasha, who consider the ruling of Beis-Din a Ta'us (an error), and not a Hora'ah (a ruling). What does Tani Bei Medrasha say with regard to Beis-Din mistakenly ruling that it was already nightfall, following which the people broke Shabbos?

(b)On what grounds does Rav Nachman maintain that the Halachah is indeed like the Tana of our Mishnah?

(c)And on what grounds does Rava support Ze'iri, who says that it is a Ta'us and not a Hora'ah?

(d)Rebbi Eliezer in a Beraisa says 'Yikov ha'Din es ha'Har v'Tavi Chatas Shemenah'. How do we know that this is because he holds 'Ta'us' (like Ze'iri) and not because he holds like those who say that a Yachid (as opposed to a community) who followed the instructions of the Beis-Din is always Chayav to bring his own Korban Chatas?

2)

(a)Ze'iri maintains that the Halachah is in fact, like Tani Bei Medrasha, who consider the ruling of Beis-Din a Ta'us (an error), and not a Hora'ah (a ruling). Tani Bei Medrasha says that if Beis-Din mistakenly ruled that it was already nightfall, following which the people broke Shabbos, and then the sun shone - this is not called a Hora'ah, but a Ta'us, and everyone must then bring their own Chatas.

(b)Rav Nachman maintains that the Halachah is indeed like the Tana of our Mishnah - because, throughout the Torah, one witness is not believed, whereas here he is, proving that it must be a Hora'ah (i.e. it is the Beis-Din whose ruling we are following, not the testimony of the witness).

(c)Rava, on the other hand, supports Ze'iri, who says that it is a Ta'us and not a Hora'ah - on the grounds that if Beis Din would permit some form of Chelev or blood, and then discover a sound reason to forbid it, would it become permitted if they subsequently found a weak reason to permit it again? Yet here, after two witnesses have disproved the first witness, and Beis Din have forbidden the woman, they accept the testimony of a 'third' witness who testifies that her husband just died, which they would not be able to do if their initial ruling had been considered a Hora'ah.

(d)Rebbi Eliezer in a Beraisa says 'Yikov ha'Din es ha'Har v'Tavi Chatas Shemenah'. This must be because he holds 'Ta'us' (like Ze'iri) and not because he holds like those who say that a Yachid (as opposed to a community) who followed the instructions of the Beis-Din is always Chayav to bring his own Korban Chatas - because then he would not have said 'Yikov ha'Din es ha'Har', which implies that had we not gone carefully into the matter, we would have exempted her from the Chatas.

3)

(a)According to Rebbi Elazar, when the Tana of our Mishnah concluded 'Horuhah Beis Din Linasei v'Halchah v'Kilkelah Chayeves b'Korban ... ', he means that she had illicit relations with another man. What does Rebbi Yochanan say?

(b)Does Rebbi Elazar disagree with Rebbi Yochanan?

(c)Rebbi Yochanan certainly disagrees with Rebbi Elazar. Why is that?

3)

(a)According to Rebbi Elazar, when the Tana of our Mishnah concluded 'Horuhah Beis Din Linasei v'Halchah v'Kilkelah Chayeves b'Korban ... ', he means that she had illicit relations with another man. Rebbi Yochanan says - that it refers to an Almanah l'Kohen Gadol or a Gerushah v'Chalutzah l'Kohen Hedyot (which would be forbidden even if she was permitted to marry l'Shuk).

(b)If, as Rebbi Elazar says, she is obligated to bring a Korban for committing adultery even when there is no Lav, then she is certainly obligated when there is (like Rebbi Yochanan).

(c)Rebbi Yochanan, on the other hand, certainly disagrees with Rebbi Elazar - because, where there is no Lav, he will hold, she can say to the Beis-Din 'You declared me to be a Penuyah'.

4)

(a)In a Beraisa which supports Rebbi Yochanan, Rebbi Elazar obligates a Chatas for each and every Bi'ah. Why is that? What is the case?

(b)What do the Chachamim say?

(c)Why will the Chachamim concede to Rebbi Elazar that if she went and married five men, that she is Chayav for each one?

4)

(a)In a Beraisa which supports Rebbi Yochanan, Rebbi Elazar obligates a Chatas for each and every Bi'ah (even assuming that he did not discover in between one Bi'ah and the other that it was forbidden) - because he holds that the Bi'os divide (with regard to Chata'os).

(b)The Chachamim say - that he is only Chayav one Chatas, because it is comparable to someone who ate two k'Zeisim of Chelev in one period of forgetfulness.

(c)The Chachamim will concede to Rebbi Elazar however, that if she went and married five men, that she is Chayav one Chatas for each one - because even if the Bi'os do not divide, the bodies do.

5)

(a)What does our Mishnah say about a case where they informed a woman that first her husband and then her son, both of whom were overseas, had died, and, after she remarried, they informed her that they had actually died in the reverse order (in which case, she was really a Yevamah l'Shuk)?

(b)Since when is a child from a Chayavei Lavin a Mamzer?

(c)It goes without saying that if they initially told her that her son had died first and then, after she had performed Yibum, they reversed the order, the same Din will apply. How will the Din differ if, after they informed her that her husband had died, and she had already remarried, they told her that he had actually been alive when she remarried, but that he was now dead?

(d)What does 'ha'Vlad Rishon v'Acharon' mean throughout our Mishnah?

(e)In the first cases, why did the Tana not just say 've'ha'Vlad Mamzer'?

5)

(a)Our Mishnah rules that if they informed a woman that first her husband and then her son (both of whom were overseas), had died, and, after she remarried, they informed her that they had actually died in the reverse order (in which case, she was really a Yevamah l'Shuk) - any children that she has from the second husband are Mamzerim ...

(b)... according to Rebbi Akiva, who maintains that the children of Chayavei Lavin are Mamzerim.

(c)It goes without saying that if they initially told her that her son had died first and then, after she had performed Yibum, they reversed the order, the same will apply. If, after they informed her that her husband had died, and she had already remarried, they told her that he had actually been alive when she remarried, but that he was now dead, the Din would differ - inasmuch as any children that she subsequently bore from him would not be Mamzerim (though she would still leave him).

(d)'ha'Vlad Rishon v'Acharon' throughout our Mishnah - means the children that she bore from him before the second piece of news, and those that she bore after it, respectively.

(e)In the first cases, the Tana mentioned 'ha'Vlad Rishon v'Acharon' (and did not just say 've'ha'Vlad Mamzer') - because he wanted to differentiate in the last case, as we just explained.

6)

(a)How will the Din differ if her husband returns after she becomes betrothed to another man, but has not yet married him?

(b)What does the Mishnah say about the woman marrying a Kohen should her husband subsequently die, in the event that the second man gave her a Get?

(c)What did Rebbi Elazar ben Masya extrapolate from the Pasuk in Emor "v'Ishah Gerushah m'Ishah"?

6)

(a)If her husband returns after she becomes betrothed to another man, but has not yet married him - she is permitted to return to him (seeing as she did not yet actually sin, as we explained earlier in the Perek).

(b)Our Mishnah rules that in the event that the second man gave her a Get, and her husband subsequently dies - she is not forbidden to marry a Kohen (since the Get was unnecessary).

(c)Rebbi Elazar ben Masya extrapolates this ruling from the Pasuk "v'Ishah Gerushah me'Ishah" - which implies that it is only a woman who is divorced from her husband who is considered divorced, but not one who is divorced from somebody else.

7)

(a)The Tana of the Beraisa establishes the author of our Mishnah, which declares the baby of a Yevamah l'Shuk to be a Mamzer, as Rebbi Akiva (as we already explained). The Tana concludes 'Aval Chachamim Omrim, Ein Mamzer mi'Yevamah'. Why does he not simply say 'Ein Mamzer mei'Chayavei Lavin'?

(b)What is an example of Chayavei Lavin di'She'er?

7)

(a)The Tana of the Beraisa establishes the author of our Mishnah, which declares the baby of a Yevamah l'Shuk to be a Mamzer, as Rebbi Akiva (as we already explained). The Tana concludes 'Aval Chachamim Omrim, Ein Mamzer mi'Yevamah', and not simply 'Ein Mamzer me'Chayavei Lavin' - because he is not the Rabanan of Rebbi Akiva, but the Tana who quotes Rebbi Akiva as saying that a Mamzer results only from Chayavei Lav of She'er (a blood-relation), but not from other Chayavei Lavin.

(b)An example of Chayavei Lavin of She'er is - a Yavam who marries his own Chalutzah (or his brother's), who contravenes the Lav of "Asher Lo Yivneh".

92b----------------------------------------92b

8)

(a)What does Rav learn from the Pasuk in Ki Setzei "Lo Siheyeh Eshes ha'Mes ha'Chutzah l'Ish Zar"?

(b)On what grounds does Shmuel say that she requires a get? Does he disagree entirely with Rav?

(c)Like whom does Ameimar rule?

8)

(a)Rav learns from the Pasuk "Lo Siheyeh Eshes ha'Mes ha'Chutzah l'Ish Zar" - that, not only does someone who marries a Yevamah la'Shuk contravene a Lav, but the Kidushin is ineffective, too.

(b)Shmuel say that she requires a get, not because he disagrees entirely with Rav - but because he is not sure whether "Lo Siheyeh" does indeed have that second connotation. Perhaps it is just an ordinary Lav.

(c)Ameimar rules like Shmuel.

9)

(a)Based on Ameimar's ruling, Rav Ashi said that, if the Yavam is a Kohen, he will have to make Chalitzah and the man who betrothed her b'Isur would be permitted to marry her. On what grounds do we reject this version of Rav Ashi's statement?

(b)So what did Rav Ashi really say?

9)

(a)Based on Ameimar's ruling, Rav Ashi rules that, if the Yavam is a Kohen, he will have to make Chalitzah and the man who betrothed her b'Isur will be permitted to marry her. We reject this version of Rav Ashi's statement however - on the grounds that this would be allowing the sinner to benefit from his sin (so in fact, he will not be permitted to marry her, but will have to give her a Get).

(b)What Rav Ashi really said was - that if the Yavam is not a Kohen, the man who betrothed her will have to give her a Get, and the Yavam will be permitted to perform Yibum with her.

10)

(a)How do we initially emend the statement of Rav Gidal Amar Rav Chiya bar Yosef Amar Rav 'Yevamah Kidushin Ein Bah, Nisu'in Yesh Bah'?

(b)Alternatively, we interpret 'Nisu'in Yesh Bah' to mean bi'Zenus, like Rav Hamnuna. What does Rav Hamnuna say?

(c)How does this tie up with Rav Ashi, who, we just saw, permits a Yevamah who marries l'Shuk, to return to the Yavam?

(d)We finally reinstate the version of Rav Gidal's ruling. On what grounds do we justify the statement 'Yevamah ... Nisu'in Yesh Bah'? Why do we nevertheless then say 'Kidushin Ein Bah'? Why should we not issue the same decree by Erusin as by Nisu'in?

10)

(a)Initially, we emend the statement of Rav Gidal Amar Rav Chiya bar Yosef Amar Rav 'Yevamah Kidushin Ein Bah, Nisu'in Yesh Bah' to read - 'Yevamah Kidushin v'Nisu'in Ein Bah'.

(b)Alternatively, we interpret 'Nisu'in Yesh Bah' to mean bi'Zenus, like Rav Hamnuna - who says that a Shomeres Yavam who committed adultery becomes forbidden to the Yavam.

(c)In fact, Rav Hamnuna disagrees with Rav Ashi, who, we just saw, permits a Yevamah who married l'Shuk, to return to the Yavam.

(d)We finally reinstate the version of Rav Gidal's ruling, and we justify the statement 'Yevamah ... Nisu'in Yesh Bah' - due to the fact that it is a decree on account of a woman whose husband went overseas, and who is forbidden to return to her husband if she 'married' another man, but not if she was just betrothed to him.

11)

(a)What did Rebbi Yochanan comment when Rebbi Yanai quoted the ruling that Kidushin does not take effect on a Yevamah (like Rav)?

(b)The Mishnah in Kidushin states 'ha'Omer l'Ishah Harei At Mekudeshes Li l'Achar she'Esgayer' or l'Achar she'Tisgayri ... l'Achar she'Yachlotz Lach Yevamech, Einah Mekudeshes'. Why is that?

(c)How does Rebbi Yochanan prove Rebbi Yanai's ruling from this Mishnah?

11)

(a)When Rebbi Yanai quoted the ruling that Kidushin does not take effect on a Yevamah (like Rav) - Rebbi Yochanan commented that this was already stated in the Mishnah in Kidushin.

(b)The Mishnah there states 'ha'Omer l'Ishah Harei At Mekudeshes Li l'Achar she'Esgayer' or l'Achar she'Tisgayri ... O she'Yachlotz Lach Yevamech, Einah Mekudeshes' - because it is not possible to acquire something now for later, if one cannot acquire it now.

(c)Rebbi Yochanan proves Rebbi Yanai's ruling from the final case of the Mishnah 'O she'Yachlotz Lach Yevamech, Einah Mekudeshes' - a clear proof that Kidushin is ineffective on a Yevamah la'Shuk.

12)

(a)What did Rebbi Yanai reply when Rebbi Yochanan pointed this out to him? How else might we have understood our Mishnah?

(b)On what grounds did Resh Lakish disagree with Rebbi Yochanan's observation altogether? Who might be the author of our Mishnah?

12)

(a)When Rebbi Yochanan pointed this out to him - Rebbi Yanai replied that if he had not removed the piece of clay (made the revelation) Rebbi Yochanan might not have discovered the jewel (learned the Mishnah like that). He might have understood that one could not perform Kidushin now for later even if it it possible to perform it now.

(b)Resh Lakish disagreed with Rebbi Yochanan's observation altogether - because he would have established our Mishnah like Rebbi Akiva, who holds 'Ein Kidushin Tofsin b'Chayavei Lavin' (but according to the Rabanan, perhaps Kidushin would indeed be effective by a Yevamah la'Shuk).

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