(a)Why did Ameimar go hungry one Motzei Shabbos?
(b)What made him react differently the following year?
(c)Can one recite Havdalah over water if there is no wine?
(a)Ameimar went hungry one Motzei Shabbos - because they brought him beer instead of wine for Havdalah.
(b)When they brought him beer again the following year, he realized that this was no mere co-incidence, and that beer must be the local beverage (Chamar Medinah), in which case it was permitted to use it in place of wine, assuming that wine was unavailable.
(c)One cannot recite Havdalah over water - even if there is no wine.
(a)We learn from Ameimar that someone who failed to make Havdalah on Motzei Shabbos may still do so the following week. Which other two Halachos of Havdalah do we learn from him?
(b)Why do we not include the Halachah of drinking local drinks (Chamar Medinah), there where there is no wine - to make it four?
(a)We also learn from Ameimar: 1. that even if one mentioned Havdalah in Tefilah, one is obligated to repeat it over a cup of wine and 2. that one is forbidden to eat before Havdalah.
(b)We do not include the Halachah of drinking local drinks (Chamar Medinah), there where no wine is available - either because it is not connected specifically with the Dinim of the Havdalah ceremony, or because it is obvious that it is better to recite Havdalah over beer (which after all, bears the title 'Chamar Medinah' - local wine) than not to recite it at all.
(a)What did Rav Huna ask his Rebbis about beer made from barley, figs or berries, and what did Rebbi reply?
(b)What did Rav Huna derive from there regarding date-beer?
(c)Is there any difference between Kidush and Havdalah with regard to these Dinim?
(a)Rav Huna ask his Rebbis whether beer made from barley, figs and berries may be used for Kidush. Rebbi replied that he did not know.
(b)Rav Huna derived from there - that if Rebbi was uncertain about using the above kinds of beer for Kidush, then how much more so would he be uncertain about date-beer (which was an inferior beer).
(c)Whatever is not eligible for Kidush, is not eligible for Havdalah either.
(a)Rebbi liked the date-beer that Levi sent him. What did he then declare?
(b)What made him change his mind?
(a)When Rebbi tasted the date-beer that Levi sent him - he found it so appetizing that he declared it to be fit for Kidush, and to sing all the songs of praise in the world.
(b)He changed his mind when (like with Ula Daf 88a), they caused him stomach-pains the following night.
(a)Rav Yosef took an irrevocable vow that he would not drink date-beer. What did Rava advocate that one drinks rather than date-beer?
(b)Why, and under what circumstances, did he issue a curse of poverty on anyone who made Kidush over beer?
(c)What did Rav ask Rav Huna when he saw him making Havdalah over beer?
(a)Rava advocated that one rather drink the water in which one soaked flax, than date-beer.
(b)Rava issued a curse of poverty on anyone who makes Kidush over beer - when wine is available. He tried to save money by not purchasing the more expensive wine, said Rava so Hash-m will pay him back, that he should not have enough money to buy wine.
(c)When Rav saw Rav Huna making Havdalah over beer - he asked him whether he had taken a liking to beer, and whether he had perhaps begun to manufacture it and business was going well.
(a)According to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, one needs to drink no more than a Kol Shehu from the Kidush wine. The Halachah however, is like Rebbi Yosi bar Yehudah. What does he say?
(b)Rav Gidal d'Min Neresh also quoted a Beraisa that holds like Rebbi Yosi bar Yehudah. Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak claims that it is neither Rav Gidal d'Min Neresh, nor Rav Gidal bar Menashyah etc., but Rav Gidal. What difference does it make which Rav Gidal it is?
(a)According to Rebbi Elazar b'Rebbi Shimon, one needs to drink no more than a Kol Shehu from the Kidush wine. The Halachah however, is like Rebbi Yosi bar Yehudah - who requires a cheek-full (a Me'lo Lugma) - which is the equivalent to a majority of a Revi'is.
(b)Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak claims that it was neither Rav Gidal d'Min Neresh, nor Rav Gidal bar Menashyah etc., who quoted a Beraisa that held like Rebbi Yosi bar Yehudah, but Rav Gidal - It is important to know this, so that, should we find a contradiction in his words, we should be able to point out the discrepancy.
(a)At the beginning of the Perek, we took for granted that Samuch l'Minchah referred to Minchah Ketanah. In fact, the Gemara asks whether it does not perhaps mean Minchah Gedolah. Why might Chazal have forbidden starting a meal from Samuch l'Minchah Gedolah?
(b)What reason does the Gemara give here, if the prohibition is from Samuch l'Minchah Ketanah?
(c)According to the latter side of the She'eilah, why were the Rabanan more concerned about eating Matzah ba'Achilah Gasah, than they were about Pesach (two reasons)?
(a)Chazal might have forbidden starting a meal from Samuch l'Minchah Gedolah - to ensure that nobody gets caught up in his meal, and forgets to bring the Korban Pesach.
(b)Should the prohibition be from Samuch l'Minchah Ketanah - the Gemara here gives the reason because one might come to eat Matzah Achilah Gasah (eating on a full stomach - see Tosfos DH 'Dilma', and the Rashbam both in our Mishnah DH 'Lo Yochal Adam' and later on the Amud, DH 'Mahu d'Seima').
(c)According to the latter side of the She'eilah, the Rabanan were more concerned about eating Matzah ba'Achilah Gasah, than they were about Pesach - either because Matzah applies nowadays too (whereas Pesach does not), or because it takes far less to remove a person's appetite for a dry piece of Matzah than for a juicy piece of roasted lamb.
(a)King Agripas used to eat his first meal during the ninth hour each day. How do we attempt to resolve the She'eilah regarding which Minchah our Mishnah is referring to, from the Beraisa, which says that even Agripas is forbidden to eat until nightfall on Erev Pesach?
(b)What is the Gemara's counter-proof?
(c)We re-establish the original proof by saying 'Mahu d'Seima, Teisha Sha'os l'Agripas k'Arba Sha'os l'Didan Dami'. What does that mean?
(a)It would appear from the Beraisa, which says that even Agripas (who normally ate in the ninth hour) was forbidden to eat until nightfall on Erev Pesach - that the decree not to eat is from Minchah Ketanah, because then the Chidush would be that, although the period of Isur had not yet begun, Agripas was nevertheless forbidden to begin eating, since he (who had not yet eaten - more than anyone else) was bound to run into the time when eating is prohibited (hence the phrase 'even Agripas'). But if the decree already began at Minchah Gedolah, when eating was long forbidden, why does the Tana say 'even Agripas'? Why might we have thought that Agripas would be different than anybody else?
(b)The Gemara counters this proof by pointing out that even if the decree begins only with Minchah Ketanah - it is nevertheless obvious that Agripas would be forbidden to begin eating from the ninth hour, since, as we explained, he is bound to eat after the beginning of the tenth hour - and in such a case, even Rebbi Yosi will agree that one is not permitted to continue eating after that time.
(c)'Mahu d'Seima, Tesha Sha'os l'Agripas k'Arba Sha'os l'Didan Dami' - means that the ninth hour of Agripas (who always ate then) might be considered like the fourth hour (which is the time that most people eat) of everybody else. Consequently, one would not suspect that Agripas might not eat Matzah with a good appetite. The Chidush is that we do not consider the ninth hour of Agripas like everybody's fourth hour.
(a)With reference to after Samuch l'Minchah, Rav Yitzchak says 'Aval Matbil Hu b'Minei Targima'. What does 'Matbil' mean, and what are 'Minei Targima'?
(b)Why are these permitted?
(c)Why did Rebbi Yitzchak used to eat vegetables on Erev Pesach afternoon?
(d)The Beraisa permits a Shamash (on Erev Pesach afternoon) to serve the guests Bnei Me'ayim. Which Bnei Me'ayim did he serve them?
(a)'Aval Matbil Hu b'Minei Targima' - means that one may eat species of fruit and meat even after Samuch l'Minchah Ketanah (the reason that Rebbi Asi uses the word 'Matbil' is because they would usually eat by dipping their bread into condiments etc.
(b)This is permitted because - these things do not tend to satisfy a person as easily as bread and cake etc. (According to Tosfos DH 'Minei Targima', Minei Targima refers specifically to (Mezonos) foods made from the five types of grain.)
(c)Rebbi Yitzchak used to eat vegetables on Erev Pesach afternoon - because, not only do vegetables not satisfy a person, but they also increase his appetite (like an aperitif).
(d)The Beraisa permits a Shamash (on Erev Pesach afternoon) to serve the guests Bnei Me'ayim. This refers to the stomachs of animals that were Shechted for the Yom-Tov meal, and not to those of the Pesach or the Chagigas-Arba'ah Asar.
(a)What does the Gemara prove from the Pasuk in Yirmeyahu "Niyru Lachem Nir, v'Al Tizre'u El Kotzim"?
(b)Why is one permitted to drink wine between the first and second, and second and third cups of wine, but not, between the third and fourth cup?
(c)Why does Rava cite this Mishnah (from Daf 117b) here?
(a)the Gemara proves from the Pasuk in Yirmeyahu "Niyru Lachem Nir, v'Al Tizre'u El Kotzim" - that just as one needs to plow the ground before sowing will have any affect, so too, must one prepare the stomach for eating, by taking an aperitif.
(b)The Tana will later permit drinking wine between the first and second, and second and third cups of wine, but not, between the third and fourth cup - because in the former case, drinking wine helps to develop one's appetite before eating Matzah; whereas between the third and fourth cups, where this is no longer necessary, they forbade drinking wine. The reason for this is that, seeing as there is no positive reason to drink wine, it looks as if one is adding to the four cups.
(c)Rava cites this here to prove that wine serves as an aperitif, and increases one's appetite - provided, that is, that one drinks a lot of it.