1)

Why does the Torah write here "be'Seifer ha'Torah ha'Zeh" and above in Ki Sao, 28:61, "be'Seifer ha'Torah ha'Zos"?

1.

Rashi: Refer to Devarim 28:61:1:1.

2)

What are the connotations of "Vehivdilo Hashem le'Ra'ah mi'Kol Shivtei Yisrael"?

1.

Ramban (in Pasuk 19): After alluding to an individual and a family in Pasuk 19, 1 "Vehivdilo Hashem le'Ra'ah" refers to a tribe and "mi'Kol Shivtei Yisrael", to the rest of the nation

2.

Rosh and Hadar Zekenim: He thought to separate from Yisrael to do as his heart desires, but Hashem will separate him to destroy him.


1

Refer to 29:19:4:1.

Sefer: Perek: Pasuk:

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