"Vesamti F'dus ? ". Why is "F'dus written missing a 'Vav'?
R. Bachye: Because all redemptions in connection with Egypt was only temporary, since it was followed by other exiles ? as opposed to the Ge'ulah ha'Asidah, by which the Pasuk writes Tehilim "P'dus Shalach le'Amo" ? spelt in full.
Having pointed out the distinction between Goshen and the rest of Egypt, why does the Torah need to add, "v'Samti Fedus... "?
Ramban, R. Bachye and Seforno: To teach us that a Yisrael was safe wherever he was; inasmuch as anywhere in Egypt, the wild beasts would ignore a Yisrael they saw, but would attack any Egyptian in the vicinity. 1
As the Pasuk indicates in Tehilim 78:45.
Why did Hashem set a date for this Makah's arrival?
Maharal: Refer to 9:18:1.01:2 (regarding Makas Barad; which he contrasts with Arov, Dever and Arbeh).
Why, by this plague (and all the subsequent plagues for which there was a warning) did Hashem say it will take place "Machar" - tomorrow?
R. Bachye (in Pasuk 25): Because Par'oh said ''le'Machar' by the removal of the Tzefarde'im, Moshe fixed it both regarding the arrival of each subsequent Makah and its departure.
