hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "Vayomer aleihem Moshe"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because, presumably, after initially adressing them angrilly, he waited until his anger abated before continuing.

2)

What are the implications of the word "Kol Nekeivah"?

1.

Seforno: Moshe was referring to those women whom they recognized 1 as having caused Yisrael to sin.

2.

Oznayim la'Torah: Moshe was pointing out that regarding the males, they knew to draw a distinction between the grown-ups - whom they killed - and the children - whom they kept alive - Why not the females!


1

Refer to 30:16:2:1.

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